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Discerning13
Guest
Hello, today I was talking to a fellow about the morality of homosexual marriage, I argued that the purpose of sex is to form a loving bond between two married adults and to procreate, anything other than this would be contrary to the natural purpose.
Just like an axe is used for the purpose of chopping down tree, if he attempt to break a rock with it, it will be dulled and the purpose for which that axe was made will no longer exist.
The person in response said, “Wouldn’t that mean that infertile men shouldn’t be able to marry either?”
I read in the Catechism that infertile couples may still be lawfully married…How would I respond to the persons claim?
Just like an axe is used for the purpose of chopping down tree, if he attempt to break a rock with it, it will be dulled and the purpose for which that axe was made will no longer exist.
The person in response said, “Wouldn’t that mean that infertile men shouldn’t be able to marry either?”
I read in the Catechism that infertile couples may still be lawfully married…How would I respond to the persons claim?