Homosexuality and the word of "virgin" in the bible

[axiology]

I’ve been talking to this person and she keeps saying that the word for “virgin” was mistranslated from language to language. she insists that Mary was not a virgin. She says that the original bible says mary is pure, pure COULD include being a virgin, but it doesn’t necessarly. That it was translated so many times over the years, by different people, there’s bound to be many errors.

Also, I showed her some quotes where it says homosexuality is a sin in the bible and I gave her Genesis 19 to read and I gave her Romans 1 and there were more verses. And she says that the bible didn’t say homosexuality anywhere. The sin of Sodom and Gemorrah was rape and treating outsiders poorly. She says that the supposed “sin” of gay sex is that one man is allowing himself to be penetrated as a woman would. “Do not lie with a man as a woman would” is closer to the actual translation.

How can I explain these two to her?

 

[Fiat]

axiology:

I’ve been talking to this person and she keeps saying that the word for “virgin” was mistranslated from language to language. she insists that Mary was not a virgin. She says that the original bible says mary is pure, pure COULD include being a virgin, but it doesn’t necessarly. That it was translated so many times over the years, by different people, there’s bound to be many errors.

Also, I showed her some quotes where it says homosexuality is a sin in the bible and I gave her Genesis 19 to read and I gave her Romans 1 and there were more verses. And she says that the bible didn’t say homosexuality anywhere. The sin of Sodom and Gemorrah was rape and treating outsiders poorly. She says that the supposed “sin” of gay sex is that one man is allowing himself to be penetrated as a woman would. “Do not lie with a man as a woman would” is closer to the actual translation.

How can I explain these two to her?

I have also heard people state that the sin of Sodom was not simply homosexuality, but it was rape and inhospitality toward strangers. However, the rape and inhospitality doesn’t occur until AFTER God had already condemned Sodom. God destroys Sodom and Gomorroah in Genesis 19. However, in Genesis 18: 20-21, BEFORE the attempted rape and inhospitality toward Lot and his guests occur, God has already heard the sins of Sodom and Gomorrah crying out.

As for the translation of “virgin,” you’d have to check with someone who speaks Greek.

Fiat

 

[mercygate]

axiology:

I’ve been talking to this person and she keeps saying that the word for “virgin” was mistranslated from language to language. she insists that Mary was not a virgin. She says that the original bible says mary is pure, pure COULD include being a virgin, but it doesn’t necessarly. That it was translated so many times over the years, by different people, there’s bound to be many errors.

Ask her to show you that “original” Bible. The word in the Greek Septuagint in Isaiah for “a virgin shall conceive” is “parthenos” - “young girl.” It doesn’t mean “vaginally intact.” Of course, young girls in the time of Isaiah were virgins.

You might remind her that the Bible does not come down to us from a single manuscript. There are thousands of them from a long continuous historic line. The variant readings are exceptions and tend to run in “families.” When you compare ancient manuscripts you can identify the transcription errors because there are far more consistencies. E.g., if you have 10 copies of the same page, and each page contains 10 errors, they will not be the SAME error; 9 pages will likely agree, thus identifying the error.

And she says that the bible didn’t say homosexuality anywhere. The sin of Sodom and Gemorrah was rape and treating outsiders poorly.

Did you ask her why she said that?

She says that the supposed “sin” of gay sex is that one man is allowing himself to be penetrated as a woman would. “Do not lie with a man as a woman would” is closer to the actual translation.

And how is that NOT homosexual activity? .