F
FightingFat
Guest
I’m constantly struggling with this issue. My instinct tells me Church teaching is sound, but I struggle to explain why when questioned. Can you guys help me work through some stuff? It seems to be all muddled up with my compassionate nature and I have some very intelligent Liberal English friends I would like to give solid answers to. First I need to understand some stuff for myself and I have a few burning issues I want to address:
Homosexuality has been condemned by most cultures throughout history. Why? Because it denigrates family life? Because it damages society somehow? Why do we condemn homosexuality?
Can it be said that what two consenting adults do in the privacy of their own home is no business of anyone else? Why or why not?
Why is anti-homosexual doctrine not a form of bigotry? Can we agree that there are no valid reasons for bigotry, be it against a certain race, religion, gender? If so, what makes it OK to be bigoted towards someone who is homosexual?
Is the important question whether or not homosexuality is harmful to society? If so, to what degree is this question essentially rendered moot by the fact that homosexual relationships are consensual?
Is the important question whether or not it is acceptable for group A to impose its own views of normality upon group B? History has shown us that the most appalling genocides have been wrought in the pursuit of a unified “norm”, often by weeding out “errors” - be they gay, Jewish, black, even Catholic. Idealism and utopia are greater cause for mass violence than camp behaviour and a taste for flower arranging. So are we, as Catholics, in actually pursuing the line that all pegs should be square, while seemingly harmless, succumbing to something much more nasty?
Is the debate more to do with what constitutes an imposition/oppression? If Catholic teaching on gender is that we should celebrate the differences between men and women, who are equal, yet different, is it true that arguably the only suffering homosexuals endure is the failure of certain sections of society to afford them the same respect? Living under the constant application of pressure regarding the “validity” of an involuntary sexual inclination from certain sectors of society?
Someone actually asked me today if the RCC (and by inference my good self) considers homosexuality as one of its objectively moral evils?
Homosexuality has been condemned by most cultures throughout history. Why? Because it denigrates family life? Because it damages society somehow? Why do we condemn homosexuality?
Can it be said that what two consenting adults do in the privacy of their own home is no business of anyone else? Why or why not?
Why is anti-homosexual doctrine not a form of bigotry? Can we agree that there are no valid reasons for bigotry, be it against a certain race, religion, gender? If so, what makes it OK to be bigoted towards someone who is homosexual?
Is the important question whether or not homosexuality is harmful to society? If so, to what degree is this question essentially rendered moot by the fact that homosexual relationships are consensual?
Is the important question whether or not it is acceptable for group A to impose its own views of normality upon group B? History has shown us that the most appalling genocides have been wrought in the pursuit of a unified “norm”, often by weeding out “errors” - be they gay, Jewish, black, even Catholic. Idealism and utopia are greater cause for mass violence than camp behaviour and a taste for flower arranging. So are we, as Catholics, in actually pursuing the line that all pegs should be square, while seemingly harmless, succumbing to something much more nasty?
Is the debate more to do with what constitutes an imposition/oppression? If Catholic teaching on gender is that we should celebrate the differences between men and women, who are equal, yet different, is it true that arguably the only suffering homosexuals endure is the failure of certain sections of society to afford them the same respect? Living under the constant application of pressure regarding the “validity” of an involuntary sexual inclination from certain sectors of society?
Someone actually asked me today if the RCC (and by inference my good self) considers homosexuality as one of its objectively moral evils?