How could Mary be without sin?...Romans 3:23

[jeckert79]

My protestant, non-anti-Catholic roommate, asked me a question that I didn’t feel I had a good response for. Would you be able to help me out? His question was how the Blessed Virgin Mary could be without sin in light of what Scripture teaches in Romans 3:23 “for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God,” the obvious exception being Christ Jesus Himself, being both fully God and fully Man.

 

[Devon_Caffran]

These links should explain the Immaculate Conception. If you have any further questions or concerns that are not answered by these links, please contact Catholic Answers directly.

Recommended Reading:
%between%Mary: Full of Grace
%between%Immaculate Conception and Assumption
When did the Immaculate Conception and the Assumption become dogmas?
Are there Bible verses that support Mary’s sinlessness?
About Mary…where in the Bible does it say…
Mary’s Sinless Nature

%between%