How do councils become Ecumenical in Eastern Orthodoxy?

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In another thread the question was posed as to how Eastern Orthodox say the council of Florence was not Ecumenical because the whole of the church never accepted it. Reception theory is one (the most popular one today) theory used in Eastern Orthodoxy to explain how councils become Ecumenical.

In a nutshell, for a council to be Ecumenical it must be accepted by the whole church otherwise it is not Ecumenical and thus universally binding.

Which then poses the question, how do the EO justify the ecumenicty of the Councils of Ephesus and Chalcedon as Ecumenical when it is well known that in their day, huge portions of the church rejected both councils (later resulting in schisms)?
 
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I’ve answered this question before a while back elsewhere, so I’m just going to copypasta it wholesale. Apologies in advance for any off the wall remarks. Undoubtedly it will cause a lot of responses and all I can say is that if it appears to me that someone didn’t read the whole thing, I won’t even bother responding to them:

With regards as to what makes an ecumenical council ecumenical, well that’s certainly a matter of great debate for Orthodoxy. I have a pretty organic view of the matter, which is to say that I think it must be well received by the Church at all levels (bishops and laity) for a long period of time to really know for sure. That’s one criteria, at least. At this point, however, it’s asked whether this entails a simple majority of adherence or universal adherence. If it is the latter, then no council meets this criteria, and therefore there are no ecumenical councils. That seems to be a rather distasteful answer to say the least. There must be ecumenical councils since we have letters from the Fathers naming them by number. So clearly they had some sort of distinct category of councils that we would call “ecumenical.” But if it is simple majority, then why wouldn’t the Arians have won out? Why wouldn’t Florence (if we’re going by the numbers of bishops only) be correct? Or dare I say, why wouldn’t Chalcedon be disqualified considering the fact that the largest population centers of the Church rejected it? So it cannot be the former option either, for Catholics and for Eastern Orthodox. It is at this juncture that an appeal to Rome’s confirmation seems to be a very enticing solution. What is ecumenical is necessarily what the pope confirms to be ecumenical. But this theory too has its historical problems, which are notably the Council of Trullo in 692 and the Councils of Constantinople in both 869 and 879.

Let’s look at the first of the two, Trullo. It’s commonly asserted that the papal legate present at Trullo was not legitimate, therefore there was no papal representation. Alternatively, the Liber Pontificalis alleges that the legate(s) were forced to sign under duress. Whatever the case, these objections don’t really matter. Although Pope Sergius resisted signing the canons, his successor Pope John VII apparently did, which is further bolstered by the fact that he avoided placing new representations of Christ as a Lamb in churches, which Trullo strangely forbid. In any case, we have specific letters of Pope Hadrian I to both the Byzantine empress and to the Franks, recognizing the Council of Trullo as part of the Sixth Ecumenical Council. The Second Council of Nicaea further recognizes Trullo as having been a part of the Sixth Council. Furthermore, the Frankish Church, in its explicit rejection of II Nicaea (known as the Opus Caroli regis contra synodum or Libri Carolini) also recognized Trullo as part of the Sixth Council, and in fact tried to use one of its canons as supporting their rejection of some of II Nicaea’s doctrines on icon veneration. But Catholics commonly answer this with Pope John VIII’s conditional acceptance of Trullo’s canons except those contrary to Roman customs. This of course is nearly 80 years after Pope Hadrian and nearly 150 years after John VII’s apparent acceptance of them. They will says that these qualifications shows that Trullo was not ecumenical. But this reasoning is unacceptable. Would they be willing to say the same thing for Chalcedon because the Roman Church rejected Canon 28? Furthermore, it contradicts the supposed magisterial ratification of Trullo by Pope John VII, and most certainly Pope Hadrian I. In short, the Catholic appeal to Pope John VIII’s qualification as meaning it wasn’t regarded as ecumenical just doesn’t add up. I’ve recently become aware of an article titled “The Council of Trullo Revisted” (cdn.theologicalstudies.net/71/71.3/10.1177.004056391007100307.pdf). I haven’t read it, but it might be worth reading. Another good, but brief treatment of the subject can be found in John Meyendorff’s Imperial Unity and Christian Divisions: The Church 450-680 A.D. On a random note, he also has a very interesting treatment of the Acacian Schism. Why the Catholic Church today refuses to acknowledge Trullo as ecumenical is puzzling, but clearly presents a huge problem for their doctrines even if they were to reverse course.

As for the Council of Constantinople (879), I won’t go into full details, but it is historically demonstrable that the Church of Rome accepted 879 as legitimate. It only rejected this council in the second millennium because of a wide variety of factors that are too complicated to summarize here. Needless to say, before the eleventh century, neither 869 nor 879 were held as ecumenical in either the West or East. They were just regarded as legitimate. I highly recommend reading a book by Francis Dvornik, who was a Catholic priest and scholar, titled The Photian Schism: History and Legend. I’m not certain if you have read it already, but I do see that you’ve mentioned it on your post on the Filioque and 879. While his book is nearing 70 years old and therefore has erroneous details here and there, it still remains the fundamental historical read for the subject. In short, there was never a second Photian Schism, just one. Dvornik seems to advocate accepting 879 as ecumenical in addition to 869. Now most Orthodox reject 869 as even legitimate. I personally have no problem with 869, although whether it should be regarded as ecumenical is another matter. Photius’ ascendency to the patriarchal throne was technically uncanonical. It should be recognized however that these canons were being violated for centuries in Constantinople. Photius just happened to have a poor luck of the draw.
 
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Note: Again, for any who respond to me, please read both posts in there entirety. There are only like 5 active Orthodox members on these boards, so we have a lot on our plate when questions about Orthodoxy come up here. Now for part 2:

So here we have two good examples of the Roman Church flip-flopping on an ecumenical council. Furthermore, some other things have to be considered. If papal approval of a council, a very simple thing to look for, was what made a council legitimate, then why did so many break off after Chalcedon? And why did even the Frankish Church reject II Nicaea until the 11th century? Surely, if the necessity of papal approval was a common notion back then, then people wouldn’t so willy nilly reject it. Given these gaps and serious issues in the argument, I don’t find the Catholic model convincing at all either.

So far, I’ve done nothing more than tear down theories of how to determine what is or isn’t an ecumenical council, while presenting only one criteria for determining what one is or isn’t - that is wide acceptance over a long period of time. Another criteria I would like to add is that it teaches correct doctrine. If the council doesn’t teach correct doctrine, then even if it does gain wide acceptance over time, it cannot be ecumenical. But this seems to be very circular or Protestant-like thinking. It invites the individual to be the judge of a council’s orthodoxy, which is potentially chaotic. This is indeed a very bold position. But is it any more circular than the Catholic model? I don’t think so, at least. Under the Catholic model, the Church hierarchy tells you what is ecumenical. In order to justify this matter, they point to Matthew 16:18-19. But who interprets this verse in a Catholic way? Precisely the Catholic Church. Ergo, it is all very circular too. Besides, a careful look at the Church Fathers’ understanding of Matthew 16:18-19 quickly contradicts the Catholic interpretation. All of this is to say, I think looking at the history of the Church is incredibly important - perhaps more important than most Catholics and Orthodox realize.

I realize my answer or model isn’t very inspiring. I had a friend who was weighing between Catholicism and Orthodoxy. He didn’t like my own answer on this matter, and eventually chose Catholicism. All that being said, if someone disagrees with X, Y, or Z of their respective church, then they will leave it. It doesn’t matter how neat or clean the model is for judging what is or what isn’t ecumenical, because they are all circular. History has shown this to be true despite Catholicism’s own claims of clarity and objectivity in spiritual matters. Otherwise, how else do they explain Eastern Orthodoxy or Protestantism? So my instinct for some time has been to give great respect to any ecumenical council or even a large synod that is well-received. But under my criteria this still leaves room for any disagreement one might personally develop. And all I can say to the potential risks involved with that is to always strive to have a strong sense of humility. This humility should guide us to look at the Church Fathers, Holy Scripture, Sacred Tradition, Church authorities, history, AND ourselves. After all, just as God made us to be social creatures, he also made us individuals. And just as Christ is in his Church as a whole, he is also in each of the individual members in full, not in part. Guidance of the Holy Spirit both collectively and individually is key. Perhaps it is related somewhat to the apostle Paul, when he said, “Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling” (Philippians 2:12). As I am sure you already know, but this is only my own position. As for how many ecumenical councils there are in my own book, I just stick with seven.
 
I imagine another important step is commemorating that Council within Liturgical Cycle, as well as including the said Council within the Liturgical prayers, would cement it’s place.

For the Syriac Orthodox, Malankara Orthodox, Syro-Malankara Catholics, Marthoma Syrians (Anglican Communion), and Malabar Independent Syrian Church (Anglican Communion), the first 3 Ecumenical Councils hold pride of place and are commemorated in the Intercessions, the Fathers of those Councils are also remembered regularly (not by the Marthoma Syrians, who have developed a particularly low-church protestant distaste for commemoration of saints).
 
I think acceptance by the whole Church is arguably an essential criteria from the Catholic perspective as well…its just that papal ratification is a concrete testimony to that acceptance so that there can be no doubt. It certainly isn’t the Pope alone who “makes” a council ecumenical…by the very nature of such councils, all the bishops of the world must participate or at least accept its status.
 
If they have a theory that allows them to consistently reject the Robber Council of Ephesus, I would be interested in hearing it.
 
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