Why, then, did Jesus specifically preach to the Jews? If their covenant was a saving covenant, then why was Christ so adamant about the damnation of those Jews who rejected him in his day? The Church does not teach that there are two seperate saving covenants, and anyone who proclaims that is out of line with current teachings; Even a Cardinal can err in such matters.
It’s true that Jews enjoy a special place in God’s plan, and that their work isn’t finished, but that’s no reason to believe that they are not called
by their own Messiah to come into the Church that God founded upon them. Even Paul wrote of the fallen away branches returning and making the tree greater, not of a seperate tree for Gentiles. Until I see some definative change in the teachings from Rome on the matter, I’ll stick with the truth of the Catechism and the ages long practice and traditions of the Church.
I must stress that the Church
is Israel, not some seperate entity. The Messiah is/was the hope of Israel, and the Church is the continuation of the Messiah’s teachings. It is the modern Jews who have fallen away from God’s promises, or have at least failed to recognize its realization. Why should we deny them the promise that God made specifically to their ancestors, and therefore deny them the Messiah that they’ve been waiting for for literally thousands of years? It’s an act of compassion and mercy to show them that their hope has been realized, and that the Messiah has come.
Incidently, I recommend everyone to check out the Hebrew Catholic website, specifically
hebrewcatholic.com/FaithandTheology/catholicteaching.html