How do Jews and Muslims explain Genesis 1:26?

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I just wonder how Jews and Muslims explain the “us” in the genesis:
Then God said, “Let us make mankind in our image…
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Does anybody know? Thanks ☺️
 
I think they believe that God is talking to a heavenly court of angels and other things.
 
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Or it could be a remnant of an oral tradition before Judaism became monotheistic. Purely speculation on my part, I’m neither Jewish or Muslim.
 
Interesting then that God would include the angels in creation. That could easily lead into gnostic cosmology (Lucifer “tainted” creation itself).
Or it could be a remnant of an oral tradition before Judaism became monotheistic. Purely speculation on my part, I’m neither Jewish or Muslim.
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It’s fair speculation. Either way it leaves the question of why God willed the first words of the Torah to describe a communication of multiple divine persons.
 
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I don’t know, but I have heard that the Jews believed in Angels (at least the Pharisees did). The prior statement is also biblical (Raphael and Michael are mentioned in the OT and Phariseal beliefs are mentioned in NT). So, if the Angels were in communion, they probably participated in creation (just as Jesus did ((which is also biblical)).

The problem is what lens were they reading through. A deluded lense? Certainly, Christians would see interpretation of the Bible by a non-Jesus Jew as deluded. Since, all those who persecuted Jesus were deluded.
 
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Thank you for your answer ☺️ Other things? Like what?

Also wouldn’t that make angels co-creators of the Creation? That would render them some sort of a god-ish figure with complete power over us.
humbleseeker said:
before Judaism became monotheistic
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Jews were not always monotheistic?
 
Maybe it’s good to think of Angels as Tabernacles. Just as humans and physical objects can be tabernacles. All while considering Church Teaching and Scripture that Jesus is above angels and humans.
 
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Jewish theologians generally understand its use as a majestic plural. That is, a plural pronoun (sometimes nouns and verbs) used to refer to a single subject or object. It’s a common grammatical feature in many languages, including English, Latin, Hebrew, etc. Its use is to indicate majesty in the sense of power and prestige.

As another example, אֶלֹהִים (elohiym) - one of God’s names - is in the plural. Even though its morphology is plural (gods) its meaning is always singular (God) when applied to the God of Abraham.
 
Does the majestic plural pre-date the Torah? I’m curious if the Hebrew authors adopted its use from some already existing custom, and if so, where that custom originates (and why). It’s a curious use of language. In any case, that God willed a self-reference in the plural in the opening words of inspired scripture resonates.
 
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Bithynian said:
As another example, אֶלֹהִים ( elohiym ) - one of God’s names - is in the plural. Even though its morphology is plural (gods) its meaning is always singular (God) when applied to the God of Abraham.
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Yes, i have heard this. Yet I wonder why He keeps saying, " the Lord God is one", as if it could be misunderstood or actually what could be misunderstood? they didnt understand the " majestic we" ? or indeed was the plural Elohim of a trinitarian, or at least more than one being clarified, like more than one but still being " one".?.. now that would have to be continually repeated, a concept beyond our comprehension.
 
Neithan said:
where that custom originates (and why)
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I’ve not come across any detailed analysis on the dating of the majestic plural in Hebrew, but it’s a grammatical feature that seems to have independently developed quite early in a large number of language families (Indo-European, Semitic, Chinese, etc.).

I suspect that its origins are ultimately very speculative inasmuch as why sometimes - in all languages - plurals refer to singular entities. For example, “money” in Ancient Greek is always plural χρήματα (chremata).
 
For polytheistic cultures of course, it wouldn’t be as surprising, since their understanding of divine majesty is plural. But are there other uses of the “royal we” in the Torah? Or anywhere in the Tanakh? Do any of the monarchs of Israel use it? If it is only used to refer to God, that is a profound distinction. I don’t think even the Egyptian Pharaoh uses it (Gen. 41:41) but I don’t know Hebrew.
 
The early Church fathers understood this as God the Father speaking to the other two members of the Trinity… as for Jews and Muslims, I don’t know.
 
Majestic plural, it is used throughout the Qur’an as well. I don’t think anyone will claim the Qur’an teaches the Trinity, unless they were really reaching.
 
We can hardly use the Quran to explain (or explain away) the earliest verses of the Torah, especially when the majestic plural appears to have no Hebrew precedent.
 
When I was a Muslim for about 5 weeks they said that God was talking in the “Royal we” sense.
 
Neithan said:
For polytheistic cultures of course, it wouldn’t be as surprising, since their understanding of divine majesty is plural.
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I think it’s important to note that the majestic plural as a grammatical feature is not in itself a marker of divinity as it is applied to humans and other created things.
Neithan said:
But are there other uses of the “royal we” in the Torah?
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Yes, there are quite a number of majestic plurals in the Torah. Off the top of my head, there is Gen 24:19 where Abraham is described as the plural אַדֹנָי (adonay) “masters”. In Mal 1.6 God describes himself as אַדוֹנִים (adoniym) “masters”.
 
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