L
LilyM
Guest
So it’s a special prophetic sign that a young woman who is NOT a virgin gets pregnant? So why was Mary’s pregnancy the prophetic sign as opposed to the zillions of other pregnancies that occurred through natural means to various young Jewish women on that day?
I have seen and read many scholars discuss that the word for “virgin” in the original manuscripts can also be translated to mean “young woman”…that it was a common understanding that the same word had several definitions…
And also, several books that show where scribes changed the text in the gospel called Matthew from “Jacob was the father of Joseph husband of Mary, out of whom Jesus—the one who is called the Messiah—was born”…in earlier versions of the book, to…” Jacob was father of Joseph, to whom was betrothed the virgin Mary from who Jesus—etc,"…where the word “virgin” was added in by copyists in later texts.
So I assume these might be bits from the discussions you saw on the other sites discussing the bible?
Of course, unless we have Mary’s doctor show us x-rays, we can’t prove it.
If you believe it, you must believe how the story was passed along verbally, written down later, then translated/interpreted…and you have to believe what the church tells you.