How do you reconcile Ezekiel 36 with Romans 8? God's Name vs Our Good

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Ezekiel says plainly that God is acting so His Name will not be profaned, that it’s not for the sake of the people. Paul says God works everything for our good. Paul appears to flatly contradict Ezekiel by saying that God works for our good in everything.

“Ezekiel 36” said:
22 Therefore say to the house of Israel: Thus says the Lord GOD: Not for your sake do I act, house of Israel, but for the sake of my holy name, which you desecrated among the nations to which you came.

32 Not for your sake do I act—oracle of the Lord GOD. Let this be known to you! Be ashamed and humbled because of your behavior, house of Israel.

“Romans 8” said:
28 We know that all things work for good for those who love God, who are called according to his purpose.

How do you reconcile these passages?

The only way I see to reconcile them is to declare that the house of Israel at that time was not ‘called according to his purpose’, but what does this phrase mean?
 
This answer will not make an in-depth exegesis of the Ezekiel passage you quoted, but will give you the Old Covenant background idea behind the Text. The only thing I will mention about Ezekiel, in general, from the little that I’ve read of it, is that it is a post-exilic Book. Therein, the Babylonian Exile already happened, wherein the “House of Judah,” which consisted of the Tribes of Judah and Benjamin, as well as the non-territorially alloted priestly class and their assistants, the Tribe of Levi. The 10 northern tribes, “the House of Israel,” mostly was already deported to Assyria, and most of its peoples, whether home in the Samaria/Gallilee region, or abroad, were already long ago interbred with gentile peoples to so great an extent that any notion of “Israel” and the “covenants of God” were wiped from their memory. This bears important interpretative weight on Ezekiel’s words here addressed to the “House of Israel.” While many will be quick to point out that the only surviving tribes, from the House of Judah, would, from now on, be all that remained of the original Israel, and, therefore, be called “the House of Israel,” I’m not totally convinced of this since the prophets continually promise the full restoration of the original Israel, and, therefore, the return of the 10 tribes. Ezekiel, then, may be shouting out not to Judah, but to their whole history of failure, to every Israelite (and this is important in regards to the gentiles, since many Israelites became gentiles).

Having said that, this idea of the restoration of a people long lost, by none other than the Messiah Himself (called the “Branch” or, in Hebrew, “Netzer”, which is related to “Nazarene”, as well as to the idea of “fruit” and “branches” in Ezekiel 36:8), which was depicted in terms of a “resurrection” (I think as well within Ezekiel, but correct me if I’m wrong), may be behind this passage. And so are many other important ideas. The idea of God “acting for the sake of his Name and not for Israel” can be traced back all the way to the golden calf fall of Israel. Although the original Israel was supposed to be a “kingdom of priests,” and, therefore, both royal and priestly, for the sake of being “a light to the gentiles,” the Israelites lost this firstborn elected status among the nations following their idolatry with the golden calf, having broke the original Mosaic Covenant. While, prior to this, they were to be briefly quarantined to be weaned from Egyptian idolatry (to which they were addicted), and then to be priests to lead the gentiles to God, after the calf, they were much further separated from anything closely related to “gentile.” The fulfilment of God’s Covenants with Moses, as well as Moses’ own Secondary Covenant of Deuteronomy, however, took place through David and Solomon, with King Solomon being called the priestly firstborn “Son of God.” Israel’s lost vocation was reconfigured and restored in his own unique person. Solomon, originally was a light to the nations, leading them to the truth, as well as into covenant with Israel, but he became a syncretistic idolator toward the end of his life, and his son split the International Kingdom, resulting in the 10 northern tribes and the 2 southern tribes. Throughout this whole process of failures, whether it be Israel’s in the desert, or Solomon and his sons’, God’s Name (related to his original Covenant with Moses to lead all nations to the truth) was said to be “blasphemed/prophaned/desecrated.” God’s Name was also said to be “blasphemed” because of the fact that the Temple was originally the place at which Solomon taught the gentile nations the Wisdom of God, but was later the sight of idolatrous worship alongside of the worship of God (syncretism), and was, finally, overtaken by the gentiles. That Temple which was originally the place all peoples “put to death” their false gods of ancestor and demon worship in favour of the high God of Heaven, which was supposed to be permanent, had now become a byword among the nations. In other words, what good did Israel’s lost vocation restored under the Davidic Kings as well as the Temple do to inspire wonder and praise in the gentiles, when Israel, its kings, and its liturgies failed again? Thus was God’s Name “blasphemed” among the gentiles, who mocked the whole thing, having now lost all trace of any trust in it.

Therefore, “not for your sake” and “but for the sake of my Holy Name” should be interpreted accordingly. God was always acting through Israel, and, later, specifically, through the Davidic Kings, and, finally, through the victorious True Messiah, Jesus, for the sake of all peoples (the end of Ezekiel 36 actually predicts the promise and success of the New Covenant, as well as baptism). With Jesus as the True Son of God (as eventual successor to Solomon/the New reconfiguration of Israel in his Person), as well as the Temple Himself), the original glory of Jerusalem to which the gentiles streamed in to see, and wherein the Israelites rejoiced, is brought back again and surpassed in excellence. This was the point of God working for “the sake of His Holy Name.”
 
Romans 8, briefly, concerns our current Christian lives within this fulfilled reality of God’s Name, wherein we were raised up, through Baptism, with Christ in his resurrection in the Holy Spirit OUT OF our fleshly fallen existence within Adam. We are, therefore, sons within the Son. But our Baptism is the beginning of the long process of this “translation” into true Life, until we reach the fullness of our inheritance, and it is here where St. Paul mentions his famous words that you quote. “Called according to His Purpose,” therefore, is the fulfilment of “God’s Name.” Therefore, it can be said that what the Israelites lost with the calf, we have regained in Christ and much more. We are “the lights to the gentile nations,” but, also, now so much more! God couldn’t work His Good for the Israel that Ezekiel was talking about because they weren’t yet ready. But he can and does work this Good for us.

I hope this helps.

God Bless
 
Ezekiel says plainly that God is acting so His Name will not be profaned, that it’s not for the sake of the people. Paul says God works everything for our good. Paul appears to flatly contradict Ezekiel by saying that God works for our good in everything.

How do you reconcile these passages?

The only way I see to reconcile them is to declare that the house of Israel at that time was not ‘called according to his purpose’, but what does this phrase mean?
There can be more than one motivation for an act. Paul isn’t saying that every act of God is motivated ONLY for our good. And if there is more than one purpose/motivation, neither is Paul saying that “our good” is always the primary motivation. He is saying that God’s works will in some way always work for our good. (Even if there are occasions when that may not be the primary motivation).

God’s acting to halt His Name being profaned also worked for the good of His people, as many of the verses in that chapter reveal. And even the gentile nations who were going to be punished would gain knowledge of the true God.Ezekiel 36: 22-23
Therefore say to the house of Israel: Thus says the Lord GOD: Not for your sake do I act, house of Israel, but for the sake of my holy name, which you desecrated among the nations to which you came.

But I will show the holiness of my great name, desecrated among the nations, in whose midst you desecrated it. Then the nations shall know that I am the LORD—oracle of the Lord GOD—when through you I show my holiness before their very eyes.
 
Ezekiel says plainly that God is acting so His Name will not be profaned, that it’s not for the sake of the people. Paul says God works everything for our good. Paul appears to flatly contradict Ezekiel by saying that God works for our good in everything.

How do you reconcile these passages?

The only way I see to reconcile them is to declare that the house of Israel at that time was not ‘called according to his purpose’, but what does this phrase mean?
What makes you think that God’s acting in Ezekiel wasn’t for the good of those people? Just because He didn’t act for their sake doesn’t mean it wasn’t for their good/to their benefit. What God did was indeed for their good…it just wasn’t done for their sake. There is no contradiction where you are trying to find one.
 
My guess is that you don’t understand either. I don’t see a problem.
 
Ezekiel says plainly that God is acting so His Name will not be profaned, that it’s not for the sake of the people. Paul says God works everything for our good. Paul appears to flatly contradict Ezekiel by saying that God works for our good in everything.

How do you reconcile these passages?

The only way I see to reconcile them is to declare that the house of Israel at that time was not ‘called according to his purpose’, but what does this phrase mean?
The House of Israel was then the Hebrew Nation; today His RCC

The Paul /Romans reference is SPIRITUAL GOOD, not necessarly materal good, although it MIGHT be expanded to include that, IF that fact MIGHT lead [in GODS opinion] to a spiritual benefit.

Thanks for asking

God Bless and pray much

Patrick

In the Ezekiel passages quoted it was a periord of widespread disobedience that is being refecenced
 
Ezekiel seems to just be saying “God will do this for His own name, not because you merited it in any way.”

Essentially, this is not saying God does not care about their good, just clearing up why He is acting the way He is, lest the people of Israel think it’s deserved on their part and boast about it.
 
What makes you think that God’s acting in Ezekiel wasn’t for the good of those people? Just because He didn’t act for their sake doesn’t mean it wasn’t for their good/to their benefit. What God did was indeed for their good…it just wasn’t done for their sake. There is no contradiction where you are trying to find one.
That’s a GREAT point, THANKS
 
What makes you think that God’s acting in Ezekiel wasn’t for the good of those people? Just because He didn’t act for their sake doesn’t mean it wasn’t for their good/to their benefit. What God did was indeed for their good…it just wasn’t done for their sake. There is no contradiction where you are trying to find one.
By definition, for one’s sake means for one’s good:
for the purpose of; in the interest of; in order to achieve or preserve; out of consideration for or in order to help someone
So, when God says it’s not for their sake, He’s saying He’s not doing it to help them. That’s what those words mean. He clarifies that He’s not doing it for their good, but instead is doing it for His name.

I suppose the resolution with St. Paul is that their good is worked towards as a side effect: God’s doing it only for His name, and it just happens to help them at the same time.
 
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