How is the full of grace(luke1:28)= sinless?

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adolfo123

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How is this interpretation of luke 1:28 support catholic dogma ?Does the original text of Luke 1:28 support this view of the catholic and/or orthodox churches?
 
Sin is directly opposed to grace, and if one is literally “*full *of grace” (as this Scripture would lead us to believe that Mary is), then how could there be any room for sin?
 
Hi Adolfo! 🙂
If something is full by definition, how can it fit in anything else?
 
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