How will Mother Mary have labor pain when she does not have original sin?

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Bert68

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Hello Brothers/Sisters.

Pardon me but I think sin is questioning my faith, and I need help.

I know from Genesis that the redemption of Eve for disobedience is that God intensified the pangs of her childbearing. I know all women inherited that sin and also the punishment.

Mother Mary had the grace of Immaculate Concepcion. She doesn’t have original sin. Therefore she should not have the pangs of childbearing.

However, I read from Revelation 12:2 that Mother Mary wailed aloud in pain as she labored to give birth.

How do I make the correct interpretation? Thank you.
 
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