- Does this Protestant ever pray for anyone else? Does the Congregation pray for it’s members? If so, why? According to them, it is not needed. That argument never fails to astound me.
- Look at John 6.
John 6:35,41,48,51 - Jesus says four times “I AM the bread from heaven.” It is He, Himself, the eternal bread from heaven.
John 6:23-53 - however, a symbolic interpretation is not plausible. Throughout these verses, the Greek text uses the word “phago” nine times. “Phago” literally means “to eat” or “physically consume.” Like the Protestants of our day, the disciples take issue with Jesus’ literal usage of “eat.” So Jesus does what?
John 6:54, 56, 57, 58 - He uses an even more literal verb, translated as “trogo,” which means to gnaw or chew or crunch. He increases the literalness and drives his message home. Jesus will literally give us His flesh and blood to eat. The word “trogo” is only used two other times in the New Testament (in Matt. 24:38 and John 13:18) and it always means to literally gnaw or chew meat. While “phago” might also have a spiritual application, “trogo” is never used metaphorically in Greek. So Protestants cannot find one verse in Scripture where “trogo” is used symbolically, and yet this must be their argument if they are going to deny the Catholic understanding of Jesus’ words. Moreover, the Jews already knew Jesus was speaking literally even before Jesus used the word “trogo” when they said “How can this man give us His flesh to eat?” (John 6:52).
John 6:55 - to clarify further, Jesus says “For My Flesh is food indeed, and My Blood is drink indeed.” This phrase can only be understood as being responsive to those who do not believe that Jesus’ flesh is food indeed, and His blood is drink indeed. Further, Jesus uses the word which is translated as “sarx.” “Sarx” means flesh (not “soma” which means body). See, for example, John 1:13,14; 3:6; 8:15; 17:2; Matt. 16:17; 19:5; 24:22; 26:41; Mark 10:8; 13:20; 14:38; and Luke 3:6; 24:39 which provides other examples in Scripture where “sarx” means flesh. It is always literal.
John 6:55 - further, the phrases “real” food and “real” drink use the word “alethes.” “Alethes” means “really” or “truly,” and would only be used if there were doubts concerning the reality of Jesus’ flesh and blood as being food and drink. Thus, Jesus is emphasizing the miracle of His body and blood being actual food and drink.
John 6:60 - as are many anti-Catholics today, Jesus’ disciples are scandalized by these words. They even ask, “Who can ‘listen’ to it (much less understand it)?” To the unillumined mind, it seems grotesque.
John 6:61-63 - Jesus acknowledges their disgust. Jesus’ use of the phrase “the spirit gives life” means the disciples need supernatural faith, not logic, to understand His words.
John 3:6 - Jesus often used the comparison of “spirit versus flesh” to teach about the necessity of possessing supernatural faith versus a natural understanding. In Mark 14:38 Jesus also uses the “spirit/flesh” comparison. The spirit is willing but the flesh is weak. We must go beyond the natural to understand the supernatural. In 1 Cor. 2:14,3:3; Rom 8:5; and Gal. 5:17, Paul also uses the “spirit/flesh” comparison to teach that unspiritual people are not receiving the gift of faith. They are still “in the flesh.”
John 6:63 - Protestants often argue that Jesus’ use of the phrase “the spirit gives life” shows that Jesus was only speaking symbolically. However, Protestants must explain why there is not one place in Scripture where “spirit” means “symbolic.” As we have seen, the use of “spirit” relates to supernatural faith. What words are spirit and life? The words that we must eat Jesus’ flesh and drink His blood, or we have no life in us.
John 6:66-67 - many disciples leave Jesus, rejecting this literal interpretation that we must eat His flesh and drink His blood. At this point, these disciples really thought Jesus had lost His mind. If they were wrong about the literal interpretation, why wouldn’t Jesus, the Great Teacher, have corrected them? Why didn’t Jesus say, “Hey, come back here, I was only speaking symbolically!”? Because they understood correctly.
(Citations for No. 2 Copyright John Salza at
scripturecatholic.com/the_eucharist.html)
- Are they? And he knows this how? Did Satan tell him so? I would chalk this up to biggotry and just ignorance. The Catholic Church does a good job of investigating and debunking alot of these apparitions. I do believe some of them are real, and some are just people wanting them to be real. Is your ‘friend’ qualified to determine that they are the work of Satan? I think not.
- Does your friend need prayers from or for his father, mother, friends, cousins, anyone? Why does Paul state in 1 Tim 2:1-5 that petitions, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgiving be offered for all men? Is it possible that there can only be one Mediator, yet many intercessors (ie: subordinates)? Including Mary?
- Only believe in Jesus and you are saved? What about being baptized? John 3:5 “…I solemnly assure you no one can enter into God’s Kingdom without being begotten of water and Spirit.” What if I believe in Jesus, but am not begotten of water and Spirit??? Ask your friend where in the Bible it states that faith ALONE is required for salvation? How about Matt. 16:27 where Jesus says He will repay every man for what he has done? What does what a man has done matter, according to your friend? He knows better than Jesus? Hardly.
He is right only to the extent that God does not need any creatures. By the same extent, we did not need Noah, Abraham, David, Moses…God did not need Peter and Paul, or the 12…God chose certain creatures for a certain purpose…Christ did not “need” to come in the flesh, nor did he “need” to suffer an agonizing Passion…God chose to do things in a certain way because He is infinitely and perfectly wise, but above all else He places His mercy above His justice, and only by doing things in a certain way this can be done.
