I am. Therefore I think

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So I have learned that the belief “I think. Therefore I am” is heretical because it assumes man only exists if he is thinking, which can lead to relativism. JPII is one of the people who condemn this philosophy.

It appears there are even some non-Christian philosophers that don’t agree with this belief.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cogito_ergo_sum#Criticisms

They will say something like:
----“He is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“He is assuming that he knows what thinking is”,

They rely more on: "Thinking exists. Therefore thinking is"

The Catholic belief seems to be “I am. Therefore I think.”, this implies that we need to exist before we can think.

So I ask, what is a good answer if someone were to use the same doubts towards this belief like they did for Descarte?

----“The church is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“The church is assuming they knows what thinking is”,

How can both of these “assumptions” be proven true?
 
So I have learned that the belief “I think. Therefore I am” is heretical because it assumes man only exists if he is thinking, which can lead to relativism. JPII is one of the people who condemn this philosophy.

It appears there are even some non-Christian philosophers that don’t agree with this belief.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cogito_ergo_sum#Criticisms

They will say something like:
----“He is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“He is assuming that he knows what thinking is”,

They rely more on: "Thinking exists. Therefore thinking is"

The Catholic belief seems to be “I am. Therefore I think.”, this implies that we need to exist before we can think.

So I ask, what is a good answer if someone were to use the same doubts towards this belief like they did for Descarte?

----“The church is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“The church is assuming they knows what thinking is”,

How can both of these “assumptions” be proven true?
“I think, therefore I am”, I think, is best understood as the recognition that one cannot know that “I” exist unless one is thinking. Thinking and/or perception comes first before any intuition, and then the existence of oneself is inferred.

The idea that one’s existence comes from one’s thought process, is not logical.
 
So I have learned that the belief “I think. Therefore I am” is heretical because it assumes man only exists if he is thinking, which can lead to relativism. JPII is one of the people who condemn this philosophy.
Don’t get confused with what JPII Says about modern philosophy mainly surrounding what started under Descartes. They rejected many of the metaphysical realities, mainly argued by Aristotle and latter by many other people but most importantly Aquinas. These philosophers make many big errors, and most of them stem from their starting point. Practically we can’t trust anything the world is. Hume thinks we are just in a movie theater and nothing we actually touch, see, hear, taste, etc. actually exists. We are deceived by what we see. Kant is very much the same way, pretty much saying our minds inform what we are seeing. I’m seeing a computer screen, not because what is actually out there is a computer screen, rather my mind is informing that reality and I’m in a sense telling myself that it is a computer screen.

But to the point you brought up.

This was actually used by Aquinas to prove why we must exist. There is nothing heretical about this argument, it is basic a posteriori (I think) argument to prove why we can’t be so deceived that we don’t even exist. Descartes asked the question if God is the great deceiver, can I know anything for certain. He logically deduces that because I think, therefore I exist. Nothing can deceive me of this, this shows that we do exist if we are thinking. He is in no way saying that only if we think we exist. Rather it is impossible for me to be deceived that I exist when I really don’t exist, if I think.
It appears there are even some non-Christian philosophers that don’t agree with this belief.
Be very careful with this, most of these guys are pure skeptics. It logically follows that if I think therefore I’m existing. You don’t have to presume that you are a thinking being, by the very fact you are thinking proves you are a thinking thing.

I’ll put it this way

I’m a being that thinks because I experience myself thinking.

Descartes takes this very basic reality, and follows it to it’s logical conclusion

because I’m a being that thinks I must exist, because if I didn’t exist than it is impossible for me to think.
They will say something like:
----“He is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“He is assuming that he knows what thinking is”,
They rely more on: "Thinking exists. Therefore thinking is"
that is not really that big of a jump as you are making it out to be.

I experience myself thinking, therefore I’m a thinking thing. What you said is just a redundant statement and isn’t really what is going on there. To reject descartes argument you have to be a pure skeptic, which you don’t want to be.
The Catholic belief seems to be “I am. Therefore I think.”, this implies that we need to exist before we can think.
that doesn’t logically follow at all. A dog is, but does it think? It isn’t logically necessitated.

I think I’ll give you a chance to think this over, before I get into how to argue against Kant Descartes and Hume. I have to review as well.

The main problem with these thinkers is not Descartes argument, rather it is where it leads them to. Descartes main problem is that he doesn’t trust our own perception of reality, he never fully disproves why it is wrong to think that we are being deceived by reality. Kant and Hume and many thinkers after this, think this way.

That apple I’m eating is really an apple, my mind isn’t playing tricks on me to make me think it isn’t
 
“I think, therefore I am”, I think, is best understood as the recognition that one cannot know that “I” exist unless one is thinking. Thinking and/or perception comes first before any intuition, and then the existence of oneself is inferred.

The idea that one’s existence comes from one’s thought process, is not logical.
I’m a-little confused by the point you are trying to make here.

Descartes begins by questioning everything, saying if everything I know is a lie and I’ve been deceived is there anything I can know for certain.

He says well yes there is, because I think, it logically follows that I exist. I think therefore, I am (I exist).

There is absolutely nothing wrong with this statement.
 
Last point. I think I realized you pulled this from an article. Maybe I was wrong on my point, but I think you over simplified it.

The main problem with Descartes approach is that he starts from a ground point that is purely mental, and he doubts all experience. For example, I experience that when the sun comes out I feel warmer, therefore the sun is a heating agent. Descartes starting point actually says that we can’t know this for sure, because how can we know that I’m not being deceived by something. That is the problem, not his argument, which I think Aquinas used at once, I think therefore I am. That is a logically sound argument, but because descartes never really got beyond disproving his evil deceiver, he runs into the problem of focusing to much on proving things inductively and not deductively. To put it more simply, inductive reasoning is only using your own thought process and not using experience. Deductive reasoning uses experience to inform your decision.

“ …Descartes, who split thought from existence and identified existence with reason itself: “Cogito, ego sum” (“I think, therefore I am”).” “How different from the approach of Saint Thomas, for whom it is not thought which determines existence, but existence, esse," which determintes thought! I think the way I think because I am that which I am–a creature–and because He is He who is, the absolute uncreated Mystery. If He were not Mystery, there would be no need for Revelation, or, more precisely, there would be no need for God to reveal Himself.”

Again Descartes proves what he set out to do and it works, and I really have no problem with the phrase, I think therefore I am. But again the problem isn’t the phrase it is I believe his starting point. To not believe any experience as reality is largely problematic.

I am a thinking thing because I was created by God that way. In your statement, I am therefore I think doesn’t logically follow. You have to explain, that because God created me as a thinking thing, I therefore am someone who thinks.
 
Thanks for the posts catholictiger

I read the skeptics part wrong.

The skeptics will say: “Thinking is occuring” or "It is thinking

Since you speak of Hume, I would like to know what you think about his sentiments from the wikipedia article I posted in the OP:

David Hume claims that the philosophers who argue for a self that can be found using reason are confusing “similarity” with “identity”. This means that the similarity of our thoughts and the continuity of them in this similarity do not mean that we can identify ourselves as a self but that our thoughts are similar.
 
Thanks for the posts catholictiger

I read the skeptics part wrong.

The skeptics will say: “Thinking is occuring” or "It is thinking

Since you speak of Hume, I would like to know what you think about his sentiments from the wikipedia article I posted in the OP:

David Hume claims that the philosophers who argue for a self that can be found using reason are confusing “similarity” with “identity”. This means that the similarity of our thoughts and the continuity of them in this similarity do not mean that we can identify ourselves as a self but that our thoughts are similar.
…or anybody else who would like to comment on the matter, as well.
 
The Catholic belief seems to be “I am. Therefore I think.”, this implies that we need to exist before we can think.

So I ask, what is a good answer if someone were to use the same doubts towards this belief like they did for Descarte?

----“The church is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“The church is assuming they knows what thinking is”,

How can both of these “assumptions” be proven true?
I don’t know if this is the “Catholic belief” or not, but it would seem to be the common sense one.

If the “I” requires a proof such as “I think, therefore I am” to tell the “I” that “I” really exists, it just seems an odd way of going about the business of establishing certainty. My existence does not and cannot depend upon a syllogism being true.

I do not know, nor am I certain that I exist because it has been proven by a syllogism or logical argument.

The awareness that “I am” is immediately known. The certainty of “I am” does not depend upon being proved and it just seems odd to expect that a logical proof would be required to establish a certainty if the indubitable quality of “I am” is not immediately accepted by the I who is. What does the “proof” do to add more certainty if the immediacy of awareness has not, by itself, already accomplished that certainty?
 
Consider the baby, first recognizing the “other” prior to recognizing “I”. “Mama”, “Daddy”,
All knowing from sense and the natural tendency to understand what is sensed. It is only in time that this understanding, after hearing (sense) repeatedly the “other” say the word “you” or a “name”, that the baby comes to understand “I” and equivalent to what the “other” calls “you”.

The intellect or understanding is an empty slate upon creation. It does not know what a circle is innately and then go around knowing of what it senses, “this is a circle but that is not a circle”. It does not even know what “is” and “is not” mean. What this says is that all knowledge came to the philosopher from what was sensed, and compared, composed and divided. Even the symbols (language) used in thinking were first sensed, compared, composed and divided. Imagination only came after there was sensed reality somewhat understood, so that imagination has material to imagine as if the mind imagined all reality. Without the real sensed material there is no imagination nor thought to write on the empty slate. Helen Keller did not know the “I” nor the “other” until the “other” (Ann Sullivan, I believe) intelligently threw water in Helen’s face (if I remember correctly). Suddenly she began to have a framework whereby to intelligently symbolize her sensing of the “other” (and herself) and knowledge could intelligently begin. Not knowledge of the self and the other, but “knowledge of the sensed”, including the sensing of the self and of others. And eventually there is knowledge reasoned that it is indeed “I” who am doing the knowing - a conclusion.
 
The Catholic belief seems to be “I am. Therefore I think.”, this implies that we need to exist before we can think.

So I ask, what is a good answer if someone were to use the same doubts towards this belief like they did for Descarte?

----“The church is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“The church is assuming they knows what thinking is”,

How can both of these “assumptions” be proven true?
“Assumptions” is not quite the right word. We do not assume we exist. We intuit (directly sense) our existence. Intuitive knowledge does not require proof. That is where Descartes went wrong. Likewise, “I think” is intuitive knowledge, and also does not require proof.

So Descartes was entirely wrong when he sought to prove his existence by the fact that he could think. In all our thinking, intuition is more fundamental than logic. Ask any woman who, in matters of the heart, will rely more on her intuition than on her man’s logic. 🤷
 
So I have learned that the belief “I think. Therefore I am” is heretical because it assumes man only exists if he is thinking, which can lead to relativism. JPII is one of the people who condemn this philosophy.

It appears there are even some non-Christian philosophers that don’t agree with this belief.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cogito_ergo_sum#Criticisms

They will say something like:
----“He is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“He is assuming that he knows what thinking is”,

They rely more on: "Thinking exists. Therefore thinking is"

The Catholic belief seems to be “I am. Therefore I think.”, this implies that we need to exist before we can think.

So I ask, what is a good answer if someone were to use the same doubts towards this belief like they did for Descarte?

----“The church is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“The church is assuming they knows what thinking is”,

How can both of these “assumptions” be proven true?
Descartes never said that things only exist when they are thinking. He said he is only aware of his existence through being aware that he was thinking. John Paul II in Crossing the Threshold of Hope interpreted him as an idealist, but that is really not fair, unless you were to say that St. Anselm was an idealist
 
Descartes never said that things only exist when they are thinking. He said he is only aware of his existence through being aware that he was thinking. John Paul II in Crossing the Threshold of Hope interpreted him as an idealist, but that is really not fair, unless you were to say that St. Anselm was an idealist
Yes, the reason Descartes accepted Anselm’s ontological proof is that he and Anselm suffered from the same error … that thinking a thing to exist proves it exists.
 
Descartes was addressing the Skeptics who insisted that nothing was ultimately knowable. The proposition was “Is man a thinking thing”, a res cogitans. This is a proposition that, in the process of considering, affirms itself. Man must therefore indeed be a res cogitans. If this is knowable then it is possible to know things. He wasn’t working out his own ontology.
 
So I have learned that the belief “I think. Therefore I am” is heretical because it assumes man only exists if he is thinking, which can lead to relativism. JPII is one of the people who condemn this philosophy.

It appears there are even some non-Christian philosophers that don’t agree with this belief.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cogito_ergo_sum#Criticisms

They will say something like:
----“He is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“He is assuming that he knows what thinking is”,

They rely more on: "Thinking exists. Therefore thinking is"

The Catholic belief seems to be “I am. Therefore I think.”, this implies that we need to exist before we can think.

So I ask, what is a good answer if someone were to use the same doubts towards this belief like they did for Descarte?

----“The church is assuming there is an ‘I’”,
----“The church is assuming they knows what thinking is”,

How can both of these “assumptions” be proven true?
I have always understood Descartes as presenting an epistemological standard of certain knowledge. I don’t understand why any church would view it as heretical since it is not an argument about what is required in-order to exist.

I think therefore I must be an “existing thinker”, otherwise the fact that I am thinking would be contradictory.I could not think if I did not exist.

What is the heresy?
 
I think therefore I must be an “existing thinker”, otherwise the fact that I am thinking would be contradictory.I could not think if I did not exist.
The heresy is that Descartes put his cart before his horse.

It is a philosophical heresy, not a theological heresy, and it goes entirely against classical metaphysics and has been the root poison of all modern philosophy by laying a foundation for subjective relativism as an antidote to classical metaphysics.

“I think, therefore I am” is an implied syllogism.

But the foundational axiom of thought is not that we think, but that we are, and it is because we are that we can think.

This foundational axiom is intuitive, not logical.

The wrench Descartes put into his proposition is “therefore.”

There is no need for a “therefore” before “I am.”

It was Blaise Pascal who (perhaps unwittingly) exposed Descartes’ error when he said the heart has reasons reason cannot know. In this case Pascal is using the metaphor of heart in place of direct intuition which always is more foundational than reason. Pascal, a contemporary of Descartes, and who met Descartes at least once, was arguably the first great thinker to detect that Descartes was leading philosophy to the precipice of a great chasm down which modern philosophy would fall.

When God said “I am Who Am,” he did not say “I am because I think.” But there is no essence without being to which an essence can attach itself. Our thoughts are part of our human essence. Our thoughts are possible only because we exist.

Being precedes essence. It is part of the essence of men that they think,
 
When God said “I am Who Am,” he did not say “I am because I think.” But there is no essence without being to which an essence can attach itself. Our thoughts are part of our human essence. Our thoughts are possible only because we exist.

Being precedes essence. It is part of the essence of men that they think,
God: I AM WHO AM. Say this to the people of Israel, “I AM has sent me to you.”

Moses: How will the people know that ‘I AM’ has sent me to them?

God: They will know because I think, therefore I am…uh… I think.
 
God: I AM WHO AM. Say this to the people of Israel, “I AM has sent me to you.”

Moses: How will the people know that ‘I AM’ has sent me to them?

God: They will know because I think, therefore I am…uh… I think.
:rotfl::rotfl::rotfl:
 
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