I need Easter vigil epistle help

[Claire_from_DE]

I’m scheduled to read the epistle which I will show below. Can you give me any help on understanding the highlighted section? I know what it doesn’t mean. But what does Paul mean?? Why did he say this? Thanks.

Epistle
Rom 6:3-11

Brothers and sisters:
Are you unaware that we who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?

We were indeed buried with him through baptism into death,
so that, just as Christ was raised from the dead
by the glory of the Father,
we too might live in newness of life.

For if we have grown into union with him through a death like his,
we shall also be united with him in the resurrection.
We know that our old self was crucified with him,
so that our sinful body might be done away with,
that we might no longer be in slavery to sin.
** For a dead person has been absolved from sin.**
If, then, we have died with Christ,
we believe that we shall also live with him.
We know that Christ, raised from the dead, dies no more;
death no longer has power over him.
As to his death, he died to sin once and for all;
as to his life, he lives for God.
Consequently, you too must think of yourselves as being dead to sin
and living for God in Christ Jesus.

 

[ryanoneil]

This is from Haydock’s Catholic Bible Commentary, 1859 edition.

Ver. 7. He that is dead is justified from sin.[1] Some translate, is freed from sin: this is true; but perhaps it is better to retain the word justified, which is observed to be a law-word used in courts of justice, where to be justified is to be acquitted, so that a man cannot be questioned again on that account; and so are sinners, when their sins are forgiven.

I don’t know if that helps.

Peace,

Ryan

 

[NotWorthy]

When do we die? In Baptism. When are our sins forgiven? In Baptism.

Hence, *** For a dead person has been absolved from sin,*** simply means in Baptism, our sins are forgiven.

 

[Fidelis]

When do we die? In Baptism. When are our sins forgiven? In Baptism.

Hence, *** For a dead person has been absolved from sin,*** simply means in Baptism, our sins are forgiven.

I would agree with this. The key is looking at it, not as an isolated verse, but in the context of the whole passage which is clearly talking about how we “die in Christ” and then being “born again” are alive through baptism.

 

[Claire_from_DE]

When do we die? In Baptism. When are our sins forgiven? In Baptism.

Hence, *** For a dead person has been absolved from sin,*** simply means in Baptism, our sins are forgiven.

I understand that this is the sense of the whole passage, but it would make more sense to me if this sentence had been omitted. It seems to be making a comparison between baptism and dying. In baptism we die; dead people have been absolved from sin; therefore the baptized have been absolved from sin. BUT we know that if we die in sin, our being dead doesn’t absolve us from that sin. So this sentence breaks the flow of Paul’s thought. I’m wondering if in that time, when someone died were all his legal debts forgiven and is Paul referring to something like that? Something the people he was writing the epistle to would have understood?

If Paul had said, “For we who have died with Christ through Baptism have been absolved from sin.” that would make more sense there than “A dead person has been absolved from sin,” which seems to be a bald, factual statement.

Is this a translation problem?

 

[Todd_Easton]

Concerning Romans 6:7, A Commentary on the New Testament, published by The Catholic Biblical Association, in 1942, p. 424, says:
7. As a slave by death is removed from the dominion of his master, so the body, through mystical death in Baptism is released from servitude to sin.

 

[Claire_from_DE]

Concerning Romans 6:7, A Commentary on the New Testament, published by The Catholic Biblical Association, in 1942, p. 424, says:7. As a slave by death is removed from the dominion of his master, so the body, through mystical death in Baptism is released from servitude to sin.

OK, I can understand that. But I do think Paul could have phrased it better. I guess he lacked an editor at hand. Thanks.

 

[NotWorthy]

I understand that this is the sense of the whole passage, but it would make more sense to me if this sentence had been omitted. It seems to be making a comparison between baptism and dying. In baptism we die; dead people have been absolved from sin; therefore the baptized have been absolved from sin. BUT we know that if we die in sin, our being dead doesn’t absolve us from that sin. So this sentence breaks the flow of Paul’s thought. I’m wondering if in that time, when someone died were all his legal debts forgiven and is Paul referring to something like that? Something the people he was writing the epistle to would have understood?

If Paul had said, “For we who have died with Christ through Baptism have been absolved from sin.” that would make more sense there than “A dead person has been absolved from sin,” which seems to be a bald, factual statement.

Is this a translation problem?

I think that is how the Christians understood Paul. They didn’t need the clarification.

I’ve noticed a lot of time when some who is sanctified, Jesus and the inspired authors said “they were sleeping”. With this in mind, when Paul says, “A dead person has been absolved…”, he didn’t need any further explanation.