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danielisaac
Guest
If an action, such as fornication, does not violate a commandment, such as the commandment against adultery, how can it be a mortal sin?
If God intended actions such as fornication to be forbidden in the same way as He forbids adultery and murder, then why was there no commandemnt against it? Why would God use the somewhat specific term “adultery” if He intended it to encompass fornication and any other actions?
If God intended actions such as fornication to be forbidden in the same way as He forbids adultery and murder, then why was there no commandemnt against it? Why would God use the somewhat specific term “adultery” if He intended it to encompass fornication and any other actions?