S
spectre49
Guest
In ongoing e-mails with a Protestant friend about faith and works, I brought up this passage: “If we sin deliberately after receiving knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains sacrifice for sins but a fearful prospect of judgment and a flaming fire that is going to consume the adversaries.”
He responded with the following:
Within Hebrew literature, there is an important distinction to be made between knowledge and wisdom. Knowledge connotes understanding, while wisdom is understanding accompanied with congruent action. The word used in v. 26, (epiginosko) can be defined as knowledge or understanding. If wisdom, of understanding with application, were intended, the word (Sophia), meaning wisdom, would be a much better choice here. Based on that, these people have heard the truth of the gospel, and may even understand it, but have actually rejected it based on their lack of positive action and now become enemies of God. This is also why the author calls these people adversaries in verse 27.
It sounds as if it came off a Protestant web site, but is he correct in saying that this scripture applies more to a non-believer who later sins than a believer (Christian) who later sins?
And even if it does mean that, it is any less a teaching for Christians?
He responded with the following:
Within Hebrew literature, there is an important distinction to be made between knowledge and wisdom. Knowledge connotes understanding, while wisdom is understanding accompanied with congruent action. The word used in v. 26, (epiginosko) can be defined as knowledge or understanding. If wisdom, of understanding with application, were intended, the word (Sophia), meaning wisdom, would be a much better choice here. Based on that, these people have heard the truth of the gospel, and may even understand it, but have actually rejected it based on their lack of positive action and now become enemies of God. This is also why the author calls these people adversaries in verse 27.
It sounds as if it came off a Protestant web site, but is he correct in saying that this scripture applies more to a non-believer who later sins than a believer (Christian) who later sins?
And even if it does mean that, it is any less a teaching for Christians?