Immutable 10 Commandments - Keep Holy the Sabbath-day

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Readers please note: I am asking a question on how to understand a teaching of the Church, I am not myself teaching anything, and what I write here is flawed and false if it at all contradicts Church teaching. Do not listen to me as though I were speaking truth, and wherever what I say contradicts The Church’s teaching, even in the least way, consider it a falsehood.

Hi ahs,
Thanks so much for your contribution to this discussion!

To keep speaking in terms of the analogy: my problem is that, although the Son has truly fulfilled rhe Law, that does not mean He has abolished the 10 Commandments, which the Mother teaches are immutable (unchangeable) and always need to be followed by everyone: “(2072) Since they express man’s fundamental duties towards God and towards his neighbor, the Ten Commandments reveal, in their primordial content, grave obligations. They are fundamentally immutable, and they oblige always and everywhere. No one can dispense from them. The Ten Commandments are engraved by God in the human heart.”
This quote from the Catechism is what Holy Mother Church has “bound” (infallibly or fallibly, I do not know)

I am trying to make sense of how the 10 Commandments can be bound on us by Her, but Sabbath-keeping not bound on us, since Sabbath keeping is one of the 10 Commandments. I proposed solutions earlier to resolve this apparant contradiction (not that this is a real contradiction, but it is only an apparant one in my understanding (and my understanding is flawed, so don’t rely on it and don’t listen to me as though I were speaking truth))

Any further contribution to this discussion would be greatly appreciated!
 
The Church has been given authority by Christ and light by the Holy Spirit in order to teach and explain the Scriptures.

If Holy Church teaches that “the sabbath, which represented the completion of the first creation, has been replaced by Sunday”, which is " to be observed as the foremost holy day of obligation", and that in order to obey the Third Commandment “On Sundays and other holy days of obligation the faithful are bound to abstain from those labors and business concerns which impede the worship to be rendered to God, the joy which is proper to the Lord’s Day, or the proper relaxation of mind and body”, then we know that by doing so we fulfill God’s will on this matter.
In Christ’s Passover, Sunday fulfills the spiritual truth of the Jewish sabbath and announces man’s eternal rest in God. For worship under the Law prepared for the mystery of Christ, and what was done there prefigured some aspects of Christ
Notice that it is not some modern teaching, but something that is being taught ever since the time of the Apostles: it was st. Ignatius of Antioch, student of the apostle John and bishop of Antioch after St. Peter, who wrote:
Those who lived according to the old order of things have come to a new hope, no longer keeping the sabbath, but the Lord’s Day, in which our life is blessed by him and by his death.
I personally see nothing wrong in dedicating special time to prayer on Saturday; in fact, ever since the time of the Apostles, through what the Church later called Divinum Officium (now Liturgy of the Hours) we are all invited to fulfill the Lord’s precept to* pray without ceasing*, according to our very own place in the Church and the circumstances of our lives, offering to God not just the Lord’s day and the holy days, but the most significant hours of every day, and ideally every instant of each day.
 
Thanks for keeping up with this discussion R_C, and for attempting to help my understanding!
The Church has been given authority by Christ and light by the Holy Spirit in order to teach and explain the Scriptures.
I entirely agree!
If Holy Church teaches that “the sabbath, which represented the completion of the first creation, has been replaced by Sunday”, which is " to be observed as the foremost holy day of obligation", and that in order to obey the Third Commandment “On Sundays and other holy days of obligation the faithful are bound to abstain from those labors and business concerns which impede the worship to be rendered to God, the joy which is proper to the Lord’s Day, or the proper relaxation of mind and body”, then we know that by doing so we fulfill God’s will on this matter.
I do not doubt our Sunday obligation, or the authority of the Church in this subject. I am really just trying to understand if the English-translated Catechism contains a contradiction or not, and for what reason this contradiction might exist, or if it is just an apparent contradiction due to some nuanced idea that I fail to understand:

(A) CCC: “They [The Ten Commandments?] are fundamentally immutable, and they oblige always and everywhere. No one can dispense from them. The Ten Commandments are engraved by God in the human heart.”
(B) CCC: “the sabbath, which represented the completion of the first creation, has been replaced by Sunday”
CCC: "The third commandment of the Decalogue recalls the holiness of the sabbath: “The seventh day is a sabbath of solemn rest, holy to the LORD.”
(C) Bible, the third commandment, as listed in the Catechism: Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy. Six days you shall labor, and do all your work; but the seventh day is a sabbath to the Lord your God; in it you shall not do any work.

So from how I understand it, and this understanding must be flawed so do not consider it true, the Church says, and I am trying to paraphrase here: “(A) The 10 Commandments are unchangeable, no one can dispense from them, and everyone is obliged to obey them; (C) The Third Commandment is one of the 10 Commandments, it says to keep holy the sabbath. (B) the sabbath has been replaced, the Third Commandment, where it says to keep holy the sabbath, is no longer required to be followed.”

Apparent Contradiction: If the 10 Commandments are truly immutable, then one of the 10 Commandments cannot be either changed or dispensed with, in whole or in part.

Potential Solutions to the Contradiction:
  1. We do keep the Sabbath Holy, but not in the same manner as the Hebrews, and the second part of the bible verse quoted in the catechism is not a part of the real Third Commandment.
  2. When the Catechism says the 10 Commandments, it actually means the Primordial Contents of the Mosaic 10 Commandments; the 10 Commandments given to Moses are not the whole 10 Commandments give to mankind, and the Catechism, when it says the 10 Commandments, is referring to these Primordial 10 Commandments and not to the 10 Commandments given to Moses when it says that the 10 Commandments are immutable, meaning that the 10 Mosaic Commandments are potentially mutable (so long as the primordial portion of them is immutable).
  3. The Catechism has a textual error from mistranslation, or from the use of imprecise language or a copyist error.
  4. The Catechism is here speaking in part about a fallible teaching of the Church, which means one of the points listed above (A, B, or C) is not wholly true.
If any of these solutions are heretical or not in keeping with The Church’s teaching, please ignore them! I do not want to teach heresy.
Notice that it is not some modern teaching, but something that is being taught ever since the time of the Apostles: it was st. Ignatius of Antioch, student of the apostle John and bishop of Antioch after St. Peter:
It is indeed an ancient practice (to worship on and keep holy Sunday), from the time of the earliest Christians. I am not here troubled by the actual teaching of The Church and of someone like St. Ignatius of Antioch on this topic (where his teaching agrees with The Church), but the Catechism’s explanation of that teaching, which confuses me as it appears to contain within itself an only apparent contradiction (not an actual contradiction).

Thank you for your patience!
 
…Hi ahs,
Thanks so much for your contribution to this discussion!

To keep speaking in terms of the analogy: my problem is that, although the Son has truly fulfilled rhe Law, that does not mean He has abolished the 10 Commandments, which the Mother teaches are immutable (unchangeable) and always need to be followed by everyone: “(2072) Since they express man’s fundamental duties towards God and towards his neighbor, the Ten Commandments reveal, in their primordial content, grave obligations. They are fundamentally immutable, and they oblige always and everywhere. No one can dispense from them. The Ten Commandments are engraved by God in the human heart.”
This quote from the Catechism is what Holy Mother Church has “bound” (infallibly or fallibly, I do not know)
Yes. The 10 Cammandments are still in effect, still Law, unaltered (by man) and unabolished.
I am trying to make sense of how the 10 Commandments can be bound on us by Her, but Sabbath-keeping not bound on us, since Sabbath keeping is one of the 10 Commandments. I proposed solutions earlier to resolve this apparant contradiction (not that this is a real contradiction, but it is only an apparant one in my understanding (and my understanding is flawed, so don’t rely on it and don’t listen to me as though I were speaking truth))
Any further contribution to this discussion would be greatly appreciated!
So, let’s look at another Commandment. “I am the Lord, your God…you shall have no other gods before Me…”. When this Command was given to teh Jews, did they know that God was a Triune God? Did they recognize Jesus Christ as the Second Person of the Trinity? Or even the Holy Spirit as God? The Jews worshipped God, alone, as they understood God. When Christ came, this Commandement saw its fulfillment. No longer could a Jew worship God the Father, and ONLY God teh Father, but the Son as well, and the Holy Spirit, One God in 3 Persons.

How about “…Thou shall not take the name of the Lord, your God, in vain…”? Would an OT Jew be in violation of this if he took Christ’s name in vain? Yet now, having this law fulfilled in Christ, it carries a new meaning…a fulfillment.

And then, “…keep holy the Sabbath…”. What was the Sabbath? Why were the Jews to keep this day? For what reason did God Command this? And then see how Christ fulfills this, not only in HIs actions and purpose, but in what He says. The Commandment has not gone away, it has been fulfilled and Christ has shown us the proper day of worhsip/rest that we are to keep Holy. One might argue that this was a “change”, but look at who “changed” it…Christ Himself, God. But truly, it is not a “change”, but rather a fulfillment.

Look at other laws Christ fulfilled…explained furhter, etc… OT it was not against the law to seek an eye for an eye, right? But what does Christ tell us?

OT there was no considertion whether looking wantingly/lustfully at a woman was sinful. The Commandment about adultery was geared toward physical action. But what does Christ tell us? Now not only can our actions condenm us, but our thoughts as well. The fulfillment of this law now includes intent, not just action. It also now encompasses adultery stemmig from divorce…which was not prohibited in the OT Law.

“Thou shall not kill” was speaking of a physical action…murder. But what does Christ fulfill this law with? Even if we just harbor hatred against our brother we are now guilty as well.

These Commands were not changed, they were fulfilled. We went from baby-food to big-boy entrees. From the most basic concepts of the Law, to a fuller understanding of what all those Laws encompass.
 
When the Catechism refers to “the 10 Commandments in their primordial content” it doesn’t mean the 10 Commandments found in the Bible per se, but the primordial content of those 10 commandments. Presumably, the primordial content of the Third Commandment is not really to ‘keep holy the sabbath day’ since primordial language would be less detailed, and the real primordial content as shown in the Catechism is “to render to God an outward, visible, public, and regular worship as a sign of his universal beneficence to all.” (2176).
I really like this solution…when it says “The 10 Commandments” it could really mean “the primordial content of the 10 Commandments”, with the meaning being implicit rather than explicit.
This is correct.
 
If I can find it, I’ll post it, but Jimmy Akin adressed this. The basic answer is that when Jesus overturned the Old Covenant and established the New we were no longer bound to obey the old covenant, only the Natural Law and the rules specified in the New Testament under the New Covenant.

The natural law proves that 9 of the ten commandments still aplly. The Sabbath commandment applies in one sense; since God rested for one day when creating the world we also have an obligation to rest from life and join with God in worship. Holy Mother Church moved this obligation to Sunday because that’s traditionally the day when Jesus was resurrected.
 
Do you believe that a non-Christian is morally obligated to all 10 commandments? Why or why not?
GOD did not deliver the 10 Commandments through Moses, just for believers but for all souls. A non-christian may not “now” have access to the 10 Commandments through no fault of their own, however the natural law is sufficient to lead a non-christian toward GOD and HIS 10 Commandments.
 
@Birdmanman
Thank you for your kind words, this thread is indeed interesting.

We ought to remember that it was not men who provided the new interpretation of the Third Commandment. It was Christ, whom is God and whom we honor as divine legislator because so often He spoke of the Law by saying: "you have heard that it was said … but I say to you….

It was Christ who established the “Dies Domini”, the “Day of the Lord”, which we call “Sunday” in the English language. Christ had the authority do so, because He revealed Himself as “Lord of the Sabbath”.

Indeed, we also know that Christ, in doing so, was not abolishing the Scripture, but fulfilling it.

Ahs makes an interesting point when he speaks of the revelation of the Triniarian nature of God; indeed, there is a deep connection between these two specific truths in John 5, and on how they were both strong “reason of scandal” for the followers of the ancient Law:
For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God
By the way, the apostolic letter “Dies Domini” of bl. Pope John Paul II was written specifically to explain the meaning of the Sunday in the light of Christian tradition, hopefully it further clarifies the topic.
 
Thank you all, R_C, Marc Antony, Catholic Dude, ahs, and others, for your support and patience on this topic!

(Just a quick note to ahs; all the commandments others than the 3rd commandment that you cited were not changed, but were added to with what could be called ‘more commandments’ or ‘supplemental commandments’ that are based on the 10 Commandments, but fulfill them without changing them; however the 3rd seems to involve some change of the actual OT commandment (because it “gets rid of” the part where we have to keep the Sabbath as a day of rest) rather than an addition of extra complimentary commandments to it.)

(Speaking to all now, not just to ahs):
I think I have gotten a little bit more understanding of this portion of the catechism, by going to the Italian language version available on the Vatican website. The issue of translation of the Catechism to English has particularly to deal with my proposed solution “B.” located in the 17th post on this thread, where I express concern over interpreting “They are fundamentally immutable, and they oblige always and everywhere.” as meaning “The obligations…” or “Their fundamental content…” rather than simply “The Ten Commandments”.

In the Italian:
Poiché enunciano i doveri fondamentali dell’uomo verso Dio e
verso il prossimo, i dieci comandamenti rivelano, nel loro contenuto essenziale, obbligazioni gravi. Sono sostanzialmente immutabili e obbligano sempre e dappertutto. Nessuno potrebbe dispensare da essi. I dieci comandamenti sono incisi da Dio nel cuore dell’essere umano
To preface how the Italian translation helped me, I would like to illustrate the language difficulties in English with my favorite quote from the great movie, ‘Clue’:
Woman: “He threatened to kill me in public!”
Man 1: “Why would he kill her in public?”
Man 2: "No, I think she means, ‘in public, he threatened to kill her’ "

In reading this Italian, we see that for us the “fundamentally immutable and [they] oblige” becomes “sostanzialmente immutabili e obbligano”, where sostanzialmente means “essentially” or “fundamentally” as an adverb. I did not before see “fundamentally” as referring to the commandments themselves as a qualification of their immutability [and perhaps obligation], but rather as an emphasis of the reality of their immutability;

I took it originally to mean:
“It is fundamental [or essential] to the existence [or nature] of the 10 Commandments that they be immutable”

whereas in reality it could also mean (at least I think, with my limited knowledge of Italian),

“The 10 Commandments are immutable in their fundamentals, (but not in their non-fundamentals)”.

In the second meaning here, which fits well with my proposed solution “B” earlier and also hearkens back to the first sentence of this paragraph of the Catechism where it speaks about the grave obligations revealed by The Ten Commandments “in their primordial content”, one might equate this to “in their fundamental, essential content”, which could imply some or at least one commandment (The Third) has “non-essential content” or “non-fundamental content”.

If this meaning is what was intended by the author(s) of the Catechism, then it certainly follows that the 10 Commandments can indeed be changed in their non-fundamental aspects (I am not teaching this or saying this is definitely true, I am just saying what would happen if indeed this was the intention of the author(s) of the Catechism, where their intention might have been otherwise).

It would put me at greater rest if someone with a knowledge of Italian could tell me any more nuanced meaning of the adverb “sostanzialmente”, whether it is usually used to describe something that is ‘in the fundamentals’ of a given thing, or whether it is usually used to say something that is ‘important to the nature of’ or ‘essential’ to a thing; in English there is, I think, a slight difference between these two meanings (“in the fundamentals” implies the thing can have non-fundamentals, whereas “fundamental to” or “essential to” means that the description (adjective or verb) that adverb refers to is somehow necessary for the thing or applies to all parts of the thing.)

Also, it would help to know if adverbs like “sostanzialmente” in Italian can typically be used to modify multiple parts of speech; here I assume it is modifying “immutable” alone , so that it is not just “in the fundamentals” that the 10 Commandments are obliged always and everywhere, but in all aspects of the 10 Commandments, even the non-fundamental aspects (unless they have been removed), everyone is obliged to obey them (this isn’t a problem with the sabbath however; if the sabbath (understood as a day different from Sunday) has been changed (since, according to the interpretation above, it can be changed if it is not-fundamental), then the changed “10 Commandments” wouldn’t just be changed at that time, but would be changed always and everywhere.

This understanding of the application of the word “sostanzialmente” has deeper ramifications, because it says that Christ’s Fulfillment of the Law and “abolition” of The Sabbath was retroactive as well; not only did He change The Commandments (in their non-essential aspects) for those living after His life, but before His life as well, potentially giving hope of salvation for the Ancient Hebrews who rendered an outward, visible, public, and regular worship, but who failed in one way or another to “keep holy the Sabbath” according to the Mosaic Law at the time.

However, if “sostanzialmente” is also intended to modify “obbligano”, if adverbs like that do tend to modify both adjective and verb when put in such close proximity, then it implies something a bit different, in my understanding (which I wish to be entirely in line with The Church’s understanding).

Looking now at the Latin Version:
Ea fundamentaliter sunt immutabilia et eorum obligationes semper et ubique valent. Nemo ab eis posset dispensare. Decem mandata in corde hominis sunt a Deo inscripta.
Unfortunately, the Latin version (which I feel like is “more official” as it is the ‘typica editio’)
uses, for 'fundamentally", the word “fundamentaliter”, which I cannot find a good direct translation of, but which can be safely assumed to mean something to do with “foundations” or “basis” judging from the closely related word “fundamentum” which means “a foundation, basis” (from the University of Notre Dame website).

The word “dispensare” confuses me as well, as in a hyper-literal translation the phrase in which it is found would read “no one from them (the commandments) is able to (manage, distribute, or arrange)”; however in English to “dispense from” is commonly understood to mean “to remove one from the obligation of doing” and maybe not to “manage from”; the English meaning certainly implies removal, while the Latin meaning may or may not imply removal, but might imply change (managing away from).

If this were truly so, that the Latin means to “manage from” and not “to remove obligation of doing”, and that this meaning was the intention of the authors of the Catechism, then it would seem that they are saying, or repeating, that no one can change (manage) the 10 Commandments, (without any reference to the fundamentals of them in the same sentence, but rather in prior sentences). Perhaps by “nemo” they mean “no only human person” rather than “no one at all, not even God Incarnate”.

-If they mean “no one at all is able to manage (change) of the commandments” then we are back to square one, where not even Christ is able to change the commandments."

-If they mean “no one solely human person is able to manage (change) of the commandments”, then Christ is able to, as He is both God and man, and not solely man.

-If they mean “no one at all is able to manage (change) of the fundamental aspects of the Commandments” (which is not apparently obvious to me, since they do not say “fundamental aspects” but just say “The Commandments”), then Christ is able to.

-If they mean “no one is able to dispense of the Commandments” that means no one can say (or give [formal] permission) that it is okay for someone not to hold the Commandments; (though that would require further explanation, as it seems that those with mental disabilities do not accrue personal culpability when violating the commandments, their culpability might be called in a way “dispensed”, though then again in order to violate something you must be able to choose to violate it…).

-If they mean “no one at all is currently able to manage (change) of the fundamental aspects of the Commandments as the Commandments stand now” then that implies they could have gone through a change (of their nonessential parts) in the past (with Christ), or that the commandments really always meant what they now mean (despite what is written in the Hebrew 10 Commandments), thanks to what might be (and I don’t know if this is Church teaching, so don’t take it as true unless you find a source from the Church to say that it is Church teaching) the retroactive nature of the Christ’s Fulfillment of the Commandments.

Regardless, there is enough vagueness and apparent support for different interpretations here, that I did not see before, that I am no longer seriously troubled by any apparent contradiction, which is not a contradiction but probably some heavily nuanced, complex teaching. 👍

Perhaps more insight will come along as I continue to read the relevant Encyclical “Dies Domini” that I was so kindly informed of here!
 
Your analysis is very interesting! As a native Italian speaker I can confirm that “Sono sostanzialmente immutabili” can have more than one interpretation. It may mean that they are “essentially immutable” or it may mean that “their essence is immutable”.

It is not modifying “obbligano” (otherwise, I think, it would read: “Sostanzialmente, sono immutabili e obbligano…”).

Good the idea of searching for the Latin version, however it did not provide a clear answer, hopefully someone who is well-versed in the language can provide further clarification.

As an aside, I found here a “commentary” that includes an additional note, which I translate as follows:
The natural law is immutable [Conc. Ecum. Vat. II, Gaudium et spes, 10] and remains without alteration throughout the changes of history; it remains in the evolution of the ideas and of the traditions and sustains their progress. The norms that express it remain substantially valid. Even if one were to deny its principles, one could not nevertheless destroy it, nor remove it from the man’s heart. It always resurrects in the lives of the individuals and of society: “Your law, Lord, condemns clearly stealing, and thus does the law written in the heart of men, law that not even their wickedness can cancel” Sant’Agostino, Confessiones, 2, 4, 9: PL 32, 678].
Here, “sostanzialmente valide”, I think, does not mean that “essentially, the norms are valid”…it seems more like it is saying “the norms remain valid in their essence”, which would agree with the previous statement of remaining without alteration despite the evolution of the ideas and traditions (“costumi”).
 
GOD did not deliver the 10 Commandments through Moses, just for believers but for all souls. A non-christian may not “now” have access to the 10 Commandments through no fault of their own, however the natural law is sufficient to lead a non-christian toward GOD and HIS 10 Commandments.
Which of the 10 commandments can be found in the natural law? All of them or just some of them?
 
Which of the 10 commandments can be found in the natural law? All of them or just some of them?
All of them are discernible by Reason alone to one degree or another, but not as explicitly stated as in the Ten Commandments
For example, theft, murder, lying, honoring parents, etc, are easy to realize they are wrong. It is easy to see how these things can harm society as well as individually. This is why all cultures have always seen these things as wrong in their laws.

If one stops and thinks enough, he will also be able to see that there is one almighty God who created everything, and thus idolatry is to be rejected.

Stopping and thinking even further, one will realize that God deserves our reverence and worship, and thus that some portion of time must be regularly set aside. Reason cannot come to the conclusion that this time must be Saturday or Sunday, so the specific days are not part of Natural Law.

It is actually quite remarkable how much truth can be gleaned from Reason alone in discerning Natural Law.
 
It is actually quite remarkable how much truth can be gleaned from Reason alone in discerning Natural Law.
EVERYTHING in natural law can be gleaned through reason. Natural law by definition is a way to discern morality using human reason.
 
If I can find it, I’ll post it, but Jimmy Akin adressed this. The basic answer is that when Jesus overturned the Old Covenant and established the New we were no longer bound to obey the old covenant, only the Natural Law and the rules specified in the New Testament under the New Covenant.
Hi

Did you ever find that link from Jimmy Akin? I’d really like to read it.

Thanks,
Stephen
 
Tim Staples has a discussion of this on CA Live that you can listen to on the following link. He answers your question quite well I think.

That topic is found at minutes 12:36-17-16
Listen
 
Tim Staples has a discussion of this on CA Live that you can listen to on the following link. He answers your question quite well I think.

That topic is found at minutes 12:36-17-16
Listen
Thanks … useful show. I was looking more for something on the Old Law vs New Law and their relationship to the 10 Commandments. I have searched a lot, but today I came across “Paul and the Law” by Jimmy Akin, which may be what Marc Anthony was referring to.
 
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