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the word is “defined”.So a doctrine is not declared infallible unless it has been declared infallible? We need a canon law to tell us that???
Yes someone should not teach that X was “defined” when it was not…
(we of course also have canons regarding not teaching contrary to the Faith…even though that is of course should be self-explanitory…it still needs to be there for the order of the society of the Church)
Something can be infallible without that kind of definition.
See the CDF commentary on the Professio
(And yes we need all sorts canons…)