M
MedStudent
Guest
In certain cases of infertility, there is a problem with a woman’s hormonal cycle where the egg is released too late and by the time it is fertilized her period has already started and it is possible that the embryo can be flushed out of her body with the rest of the endometrium. This can be fixed with hormone therapy and the woman can then conceive.
My question is:
What type of moral obligation does the woman have when she determines the nature of her infertility? Her body is essentially rejecting the very early pregnancy and causing a spontaneous abortion, so would she then be morally obligated to continue hormonal therapy even when she is not trying to conceive? Would it be morally objectionable she instead use the hormonal therapy only when she is trying to conceive and use her natural cycle as a form of contraception while recognizing that her embryos are perishing?
My question is:
What type of moral obligation does the woman have when she determines the nature of her infertility? Her body is essentially rejecting the very early pregnancy and causing a spontaneous abortion, so would she then be morally obligated to continue hormonal therapy even when she is not trying to conceive? Would it be morally objectionable she instead use the hormonal therapy only when she is trying to conceive and use her natural cycle as a form of contraception while recognizing that her embryos are perishing?