B
bengeorge
Guest
I had a long discussion with a priest a few days ago. His hobby was Civil War history, especially the history of the South.
His contention was that the people who owned slaves couldn’t really be held accountable for that as a sin, since they didn’t know that it was wrong…
To support this, the priest said that Aquinas had written that if a Muslim goes to his death in jihad truely thinking that he is doing right in the eyes of God, that his intentions will be counted as a virtue.
The priest gave the further example that the ancient Aztecs thought that human sacrifice was a virtue, and did not know that what they were doing was evil.
My contention was that they are at least partly culpable, since all have the law written on their hearts, and have at least an inkling of an idea that what they do is wrong.
How does the priest’s (and Aquinas’ ?!) reasoning NOT lead to relativism?
His contention was that the people who owned slaves couldn’t really be held accountable for that as a sin, since they didn’t know that it was wrong…
To support this, the priest said that Aquinas had written that if a Muslim goes to his death in jihad truely thinking that he is doing right in the eyes of God, that his intentions will be counted as a virtue.
The priest gave the further example that the ancient Aztecs thought that human sacrifice was a virtue, and did not know that what they were doing was evil.
My contention was that they are at least partly culpable, since all have the law written on their hearts, and have at least an inkling of an idea that what they do is wrong.
How does the priest’s (and Aquinas’ ?!) reasoning NOT lead to relativism?