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1ke
Guest
This is incorrect. It is not at all consistent with the Church’s actual jurisprudence. See the Commentary (green book) regarding canon 1060 and what “Favor of the Law” actually means. The first sentence regarding this canon is, “Once it has been properly celebrated, a marriage is presumed to be valid unless the contrary is proven.”The presumption is that all marriages are valid.
Those celebrated outside canonical form do not enjoy the favor of the law. See 1060 and 1108 and their associated commentary.
Not true at all. See again 1060 and commentary. This canon applies to non-Catholics. I am not sure where you would get the idea that a marriage of non-Catholics cannot be properly celebrated.If only properly celebrated marriages are presumed valid, then no marriage outside of the church would be presumed valid even those among non Catholics.
See canon 1059, ecclesial law applies on when one party to the marriage is a Catholic.
Correct. Therefore your marriage, either contracted in the external forum or established that the marriage is “in possession” (see commentary and specific cases referred to their for definition of “in possession”.), did enjoy the favor of the law.I had to get a nullity. I was married while not even baptized to a non Catholic outside of her church and my marriage was presumed to be valid.
That does not mean that a Catholic who marries outside canonical form enjoys the same favor of the law. They do not.