Is it okay to use an impotence treatment that might cause infertility?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Tsudeaux_Gnymm
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
T

Tsudeaux_Gnymm

Guest
(Please note: I am not asking for medical advice. I already have medical advice from my physician. I just want to discuss whether the suggested treatment is acceptable per Catholic teaching.)

I suffer from erectile dysfunction related to low testosterone. My wife and I naturally don’t care for it.

My doctor has recommended hormonal replacement therapy to remedy the problem (I have tried other supplements and they seem inadequate). Unfortunately, supplemental testosterone is known to reduce fertility and even cause sterility. (This may be only in cases of abuse by athletes but I haven’t seen documentary evidence asserting so)

It doesn’t “feel right” to either me or my wife to take a medicine that defeats its own purpose (treating impotence only to end up infertile). If there were a serious condition being treated, the answer would be obvious. My intent is not to contracept, just to restore a part of my marriage that has been suffering.

Would it be acceptable to use testosterone under these circumstances?

Thanks.
 
Do you have risk information with some numbers?

I’m seeing a possible increase in risk for prostate cancer too in my quick search.
 
The princible of the double effect says ‘yes’. Taking prescribed medication to cure a pathology is a morally good act. The negative effect of infertility is unwilled, and is a lesser evil than impotence.

In Christ,

M
 
mpsguard said:
The princible of the double effect says ‘yes’. Taking prescribed medication to cure a pathology is a morally good act. The negative effect of infertility is unwilled, and is a lesser evil than impotence.

In Christ,

M
Click to expand...
Yeah, I would think particularly since the medical condition you are trying to treat (impotence) also implies infertility (doesn’t it???). If you do treat it, maybe infertility is a side effect, but I bet it is not 100% probable, whereas if you don’t treat it, you also have reduced fertility.
 
Tsudeaux_Gnymm said:
(Please note: I am not asking for medical advice. I already have medical advice from my physician. I just want to discuss whether the suggested treatment is acceptable per Catholic teaching.)

I suffer from erectile dysfunction related to low testosterone. My wife and I naturally don’t care for it.

My doctor has recommended hormonal replacement therapy to remedy the problem (I have tried other supplements and they seem inadequate). Unfortunately, supplemental testosterone is known to reduce fertility and even cause sterility. (This may be only in cases of abuse by athletes but I haven’t seen documentary evidence asserting so)

It doesn’t “feel right” to either me or my wife to take a medicine that defeats its own purpose (treating impotence only to end up infertile). If there were a serious condition being treated, the answer would be obvious. My intent is not to contracept, just to restore a part of my marriage that has been suffering.

Would it be acceptable to use testosterone under these circumstances?

Thanks.
Click to expand...
Yes, you may receive a medical treatment such as you describe even if it has the secondary and unintended side effect of possible sterlity whether it be temporary or permanent.
 
1ke said:
No. these are two different things entirely.
Click to expand...
Well yes they’re different things. But doesn’t impotence make it harder to engage in the marital act to begin with? And so the end result, whether it’s reduced frequency of the marital act, or reduced likelihood of conception with the marital act, is reduced likelihood of conception?

Or perhaps I’m way off base. It’s happened before…
 
Bobby_Jim said:
Well yes they’re different things. But doesn’t impotence make it harder to engage in the marital act to begin with? And so the end result, whether it’s reduced frequency of the marital act, or reduced likelihood of conception with the marital act, is reduced likelihood of conception?

Or perhaps I’m way off base. It’s happened before…
Click to expand...
That is not what the term infertile means.
 
Bobby_Jim said:
Well yes they’re different things. But doesn’t impotence make it harder to engage in the marital act to begin with? And so the end result, whether it’s reduced frequency of the marital act, or reduced likelihood of conception with the marital act, is reduced likelihood of conception?

Or perhaps I’m way off base. It’s happened before…
Click to expand...
ke is correct. They are different issues. We have reason to believe that my fertility had not been similarly reduced (conceived and miscarried 😦 ). It was more difficult and less enjoyable but possible.
 
Nothing substantive to add, but OP, that is a great screen name!
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top