Is it possible that Matthew's exception clause in ch 5 and 19 has something to do with originally being written in Hebrew?

[jcrichton]

Yes, point taken. I guess I just thought that maybe the two things are a little related. The fact that there is substantial testimony that Matthew wrote his Gospel in Aramaic combined with his Gospel being the only Scripture to make such an “exception” regarding divorce.

Your point is the same basic principle, but perhaps looking at that passage, as one example, can give credence to the Aramaic origin tradition. That Matthew used something in Aramaic that gave the Teaching a clearer understanding to the Jewish nation. Then, the best Greek term to use in that place (porneia) was not necessarily as fitting as the Aramaic.

Are you aware of how modern Jewish scholars have interpreted these passages? And have any proposed an equivalent Aramaic translation/interpretation?

Hi, RC!

…modern Jewish scholars?

…would they not disown the entirety of the New Testament?

Maran atha!

Angel

 

[rcwitness]

Hi, RC!

…modern Jewish scholars?

…would they not disown the entirety of the New Testament?
I don’t know… I’m not under the impression that they would. That sounds pretty extreme. Yes we have major disagreements whether Jesus was the fulfilled Messiah, but they would still be able to recognize many aspects of the Scriptures and what it would mean to the ancient Jewish people.

 

[jcrichton]

I don’t know… I’m not under the impression that they would. That sounds pretty extreme. Yes we have major disagreements whether Jesus was the fulfilled Messiah, but they would still be able to recognize many aspects of the Scriptures and what it would mean to the ancient Jewish people.

Hi, RC!

…I’ve come across a few sites (Jewish) where Christianity and the New Testament are dismissed or ill-spoken of; I’ve also had short engagements with some who purport to practice Judaism… from their perspective, Christians (the Catholic Church) has misinterpreted and misused the Old Testament Writings, have invented/concocted everything in the New Testament and are basically the equivalent of the term “infidels” used by Muslims.

Perhaps Jewish “scholars” can separate themselves from their culture in order to study, in fairness, the New Testament Writings… since I do not know the mind/heart of man… I obliged to conclude that it could be possible…

Maran atha!

Angel

 

[fbl9]

I do not see this as a clause for divorce for one could not commit adultery with one who is free to marry. And i do not think St.Matthew writing this just for a Jewish audience for they already know one can put away their wife. Nor was it a cover for St.Joseph’s idea to quietly put Mary away.