According to MOUSY’S answer we don’t have a sacramental marriage until she’s baptized. Any documentation?
A marriage either involves the sacrament of matrimony or it does not.
Law and doctrine clearly distinguish between the marriages in which both parties are baptized and those in which at least one party is not.
This is so basic that the USCCB marriage faq, for example, does not even bother to cite sources on that point. See
usccb.org/laity/marriage/marriagefaqs.shtml
However, the established doctrine can be illustrated by just a few canons. It would be laborious and needless to go further.
The apologist had already alluded to the fact that baptism is the gate to the sacraments (c. 849). One cannot validly receive other sacraments without baptism. It is a gate that must be passed through first. This is a rather long standing fundamental notion in sacramental theology.
This is made very clear in **canon 842 §1: A person who has not received baptism cannot be validly admitted to the other sacraments. **
However, when both are baptized, a valid marriage is a sacrament by necessity.
Canon 1055 §1. The matrimonial covenant, by which a man and a woman establish between themselves a partnership of the whole of life, which is ordered by its nature toward the good of the spouses and the procreation and education of offspring, has been raised by Christ the Lord to the dignity of a sacrament between the baptized. §2. For this reason, a valid matrimonial contract cannot exist between the baptized without it being by that fact a sacrament.
Because of this, once your non baptized spouse in your valid marriage becomes baptized, your marriage becomes sacramental.
