M
Madaglan
Guest
Hello. I’m not married, nor do I shack up with chicks often, so I’m not too familiar with all the ideas behind contraception and NFP. However, from what I have read so far, I am having difficulty understanding why contraception is “intrinsically evil” in all cases while NFP is upheld by the Church.
I understand that, according to Western Catholic theology, the primary aim of marriage is to produce children–to populate the earth with warriors for Christ. As this is the goal of marriage, to purposely hinder this goal is to transgress the role of marriage in the Christian life. So, I can understand why the Church disapproves of those who use contraception with the specific goal in mind to prevent having children. However, I don’t understand why NFP, which although open to life nonetheless actively seeks to limit times of fertility, is considered as being any different than someone who practices contraception but is nontheless open to the possibility that the contraception will not work and that they will have children.
At this point, I wonder if, in labeling contraception as “intrinsically evil” we are falling into an anti-materialism–calling the contraceptive devices themselves evil rather than the intents of the individuals.
Could someone please explain to me why a couple that knowingly uses condoms that are, say, 95% effective, and is open to life in the case of that 5%, is any more wrong that the family that practices regular NFP, well knowing that there is only, say, a 1% chance of pregnancy, although it is open to life in the case of that 1% chance.
It just seems that we should focus more on the evil intent–namely to make a “plan” of when to have so many children–rather than the method of this plan. It seems that NFP, since its intent to actively limit times of fertility, though not an ulterior intent, is somehow wrong.
Again, perhaps someone who is more of an expert on the differences between artificial contraception and NFP, and why the latter is acceptable whereas the former is not.
I understand that, according to Western Catholic theology, the primary aim of marriage is to produce children–to populate the earth with warriors for Christ. As this is the goal of marriage, to purposely hinder this goal is to transgress the role of marriage in the Christian life. So, I can understand why the Church disapproves of those who use contraception with the specific goal in mind to prevent having children. However, I don’t understand why NFP, which although open to life nonetheless actively seeks to limit times of fertility, is considered as being any different than someone who practices contraception but is nontheless open to the possibility that the contraception will not work and that they will have children.
At this point, I wonder if, in labeling contraception as “intrinsically evil” we are falling into an anti-materialism–calling the contraceptive devices themselves evil rather than the intents of the individuals.
Could someone please explain to me why a couple that knowingly uses condoms that are, say, 95% effective, and is open to life in the case of that 5%, is any more wrong that the family that practices regular NFP, well knowing that there is only, say, a 1% chance of pregnancy, although it is open to life in the case of that 1% chance.
It just seems that we should focus more on the evil intent–namely to make a “plan” of when to have so many children–rather than the method of this plan. It seems that NFP, since its intent to actively limit times of fertility, though not an ulterior intent, is somehow wrong.
Again, perhaps someone who is more of an expert on the differences between artificial contraception and NFP, and why the latter is acceptable whereas the former is not.