It really seems like a terminological issue doesn’t it?
I’m reminded of two things:
1.) I’ll take correction from you on this one Peter, but if i recall…
One of the ways that certain Protestants and Evangelicals are dismissive of Catholic and Orthodox theology is to say that your faiths have been somehow “corrupted” by exposure to Greek philosophy (implying of course they have somehow recovered “true” Christianity). To be fair, certain Orthodox theologians say that of Catholics as well due to the predominance of Aristotlean inspired Thomism.
The accusation i’ve seen once or twice from the Protestant/Evangelical wing is that Orthodox Christianity is essentially “Christianity + NeoPlatonism” pointing to the fact that certain important figures (your Church Fathers i think yuo call them) utilize terms that was part of the philosophical language of the Neoplatonist school(s).
I think the “counterpoint” tends to be that the Orthodox interlocutors point out that while the terms are utilized, the
definitions are wholely within the context of Orthodox theology.
ie: They kept the word and altered the definition to fit the Orthodox worldview.
I can attest that at least in terms of Hinduism, Buddhism, and Jainism, certain shared words like “Karma” and “Dharma” have rather unique meanings in the context of the tradition its placed in.
2.) A Catholic friend of mine whose really into CS Lewis once told me a factoid that stuck in my brain - namely that there are multiple ways of expressing the concepts covered by the English word “Love” in Greek.
a.) Storge
b.) Philia
c.) Eros
d.) Venus
and the often familiar term used by you guys - Agape.
Their definitions are distinct - yet in common parlance “Love” can fit into any of those categories
1.) I love my Friend.
2.) I love my Mom.
3.) I love my Wife.
4.) God loves me. (yeah this is Agape)
But it would be…inappropriate to confuse say the romantic intentions toward one’s Wife with the same type of love expressed to one’s mother…unless you believe what Freud says…
