E
Elzee
Guest
As I listened to the Gospel today I was hit with something I’ve never noticed before and hope someone can help me because I can’t make sense of it given what I’ve read many times on the Catholic understanding of this story. I’m sorry this is long.
It’s Matthew 18, starting with verse 15. I’m sure you all know it talks about what one should do if he sins (eventually going to the church for guidance). The, Jesus says ''Amen, I say to you whatever you bind on earth.…". etc. I have always undestood that Jesus gave this power to Peter when he gave him the keys…- no problem there…I understand that. . In this text, he also gives it to his Apostles. No problem there with me either. So, when the magisterium works in conjunction with the Pope, we are bound; or if the Pope speaks infallibly we’re bound. Again no problem - I’ve used this explanation many times with people (hopefully correctly).
But, here is where I faltered today. In verse 19, Jesus, still talking to the same people says ‘….I say to you, *whenever 2 of you agree on earth about anything for which they are to pray, it shall be granted…whever 2 or 3 are gathered in my name there am I in the midst of them’.
*Here is my problem…if Jesus was giving the power to bind/loose to the apostles, why in the next verse -still using the word ‘you’ and talking to the same people, does the church not say that he is only talking about the apostles (and their successors) when he says that when 2 or 3 of you are gathered in my name there I am. I’ve always understand that the ‘you’ in this particular verse means anyone. But that doesn’t seem to be consistent, since just before this verse the ‘you’ for binding and losing does not apply to ‘anyone’.
It’s Matthew 18, starting with verse 15. I’m sure you all know it talks about what one should do if he sins (eventually going to the church for guidance). The, Jesus says ''Amen, I say to you whatever you bind on earth.…". etc. I have always undestood that Jesus gave this power to Peter when he gave him the keys…- no problem there…I understand that. . In this text, he also gives it to his Apostles. No problem there with me either. So, when the magisterium works in conjunction with the Pope, we are bound; or if the Pope speaks infallibly we’re bound. Again no problem - I’ve used this explanation many times with people (hopefully correctly).
But, here is where I faltered today. In verse 19, Jesus, still talking to the same people says ‘….I say to you, *whenever 2 of you agree on earth about anything for which they are to pray, it shall be granted…whever 2 or 3 are gathered in my name there am I in the midst of them’.
*Here is my problem…if Jesus was giving the power to bind/loose to the apostles, why in the next verse -still using the word ‘you’ and talking to the same people, does the church not say that he is only talking about the apostles (and their successors) when he says that when 2 or 3 of you are gathered in my name there I am. I’ve always understand that the ‘you’ in this particular verse means anyone. But that doesn’t seem to be consistent, since just before this verse the ‘you’ for binding and losing does not apply to ‘anyone’.