James 1:13 and the Temptation of Jesus

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Ok, can someone please explain James 1:13 in light of the temptation of Jesus in the desert? James 1:13 says that God cannot be tempted yet Jesus is God and He was tempted in the desert. I know there is some kind of explanation for this. I must be reading James 1:13 wrong or something. Please help!

James 1:13 RSV Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted with evil and he himself tempts no one;
 
Ok, can someone please explain James 1:13 in light of the temptation of Jesus in the desert? James 1:13 says that God cannot be tempted yet Jesus is God and He was tempted in the desert. I know there is some kind of explanation for this. I must be reading James 1:13 wrong or something. Please help!

James 1:13 RSV Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted with evil and he himself tempts no one;
It’s simple - there are two different types of temptation being referred to here. Jesus was tempted in the sense that Satan tried to get Him to sin, but He Himself, of course, never wavered in His antipathy to the very notion of sin.

We, on the other hand, are tempted in a different way - if Satan made the same suggestions to us we would be attracted by his offers for the most part and we would give at least some thought to giving into them. In this sense of ‘temptation’, no God cannot be tempted.

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Ok, can someone please explain James 1:13 in light of the temptation of Jesus in the desert? James 1:13 says that God cannot be tempted yet Jesus is God and He was tempted in the desert. I know there is some kind of explanation for this. I must be reading James 1:13 wrong or something. Please help!

James 1:13 RSV Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted with evil and he himself tempts no one;
James 1:14-15
“But everyone is tempted
when he is drawn away of his own lust **and **enticed
Then when lust hath conceived
it bringeth forth sin
and sin when it is finished
bringeth forth death”

The **enticement **from the Tempter was presented to Jesus,

Matthew 4:9
“And saith unto him (the devil)
all these things will I give thee
if thou wilt fall down and worship me”

But Jesus wasn’t drawn away of his own lust, but said right away, “Get thee hence Satan”. Therefore lust didn’t conceive, which therefore brought no sin.
 
Ok, can someone please explain James 1:13 in light of the temptation of Jesus in the desert? James 1:13 says that God cannot be tempted yet Jesus is God and He was tempted in the desert. I know there is some kind of explanation for this. I must be reading James 1:13 wrong or something. Please help!

James 1:13 RSV Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted with evil and he himself tempts no one;
D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:

Ver. 13. God is not a tempter of evils, and he tempteth no man. Here to tempt, is to draw and entice another to the evil of sin, which God cannot do. The Greek may also signify, he neither can be tempted, nor tempt any one. But every one is thus tempted by the evil desires of his corrupt nature, which is called concupiscence, and which is not properly called a sin of itself, but only when we yield to it. (Witham)
 
It’s simple - there are two different types of temptation being referred to here. Jesus was tempted in the sense that Satan tried to get Him to sin, but He Himself, of course, never wavered in His antipathy to the very notion of sin.
Yes.

The word tempt has two meanings - “persuade” and “try to persuade”. The implied meaning in James 1:13 is that God cannot be persuaded by evil. Satan** tried to persuade **Jesus, but Jesus was not persuaded. So Jesus was **not tempted **(persuaded).
 
D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:

Ver. 13. God is not a tempter of evils, and he tempteth no man. Here to tempt, is to draw and entice another to the evil of sin, which God cannot do. The Greek may also signify, he neither can be tempted, nor tempt any one. But every one is thus tempted by the evil desires of his corrupt nature, which is called concupiscence, and which is not properly called a sin of itself, but only when we yield to it. (Witham)
You seem to be a fan of Haydock Commentary, lol! 😃
 
You seem to be a fan of Haydock Commentary, lol! 😃
I sure am. The Douey-Rheims Bible is one of the best Catholic bibles and the Haydock Commentary is great. If I don’t understand a particular verse in Scripture its my first place to look.
 
Ok, can someone please explain James 1:13 in light of the temptation of Jesus in the desert? James 1:13 says that God cannot be tempted yet Jesus is God and He was tempted in the desert. I know there is some kind of explanation for this. I must be reading James 1:13 wrong or something. Please help!

James 1:13 RSV Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted with evil and he himself tempts no one;
Read the Douay-Rheims version of James 1:13. This has the intended sense translated correctly (and it actually makes sense in context unlike the other translations).

Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils: and he tempteth no man.

Ask yourself if this statement makes sense:

Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone

Now ask yourself if this statement makes sense:

Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God”; for God is apart from temptations of evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone

Only the latter actually makes sense. Why would James be telling anyone God cannot be tempted by evil in the middle of explaining why we are being tempted and we can’t blame God for it?

The key word in question does not mean CANNOT BE tempted. It means “apart from temptations.” James’ point is that when we are tempted to sin we can’t blame God because God is not involved in these things.
 
Well everyone, thank you for your posts. I think I finally understand the issue. I was looking up the verse in the Douay-Rheims Bible as well just now and found that the verse made much more sense in the Douay-Rheims. Is the Douay-Rheims a more accurate translation of this than the RSV?

James 1:13 DRB Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils: and he tempteth no man.
 
Well everyone, thank you for your posts. I think I finally understand the issue. I was looking up the verse in the Douay-Rheims Bible as well just now and found that the verse made much more sense in the Douay-Rheims. Is the Douay-Rheims a more accurate translation of this than the RSV?

James 1:13 DRB Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils: and he tempteth no man.
If you get a chance read Jesus of Nazareth by Pope Benedict XVI. Chapter two explains it very well with a lot of insight into Christ’s mission. It is a very good account of the temptations.
 
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