Jerome's Bible

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eleusis

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I am in a continuous debate at work with an evangelical. Does anyone know if the Deuterocanicals were originally separated out by Jerome when he wrote the LV version? The thrust of the argument is that he owes the Catholics for his bible but he says we give too much weight to the Deut’s which are profitable for learning but are not to be considered part of divine scripture.

Any takers?
Thanks,
 
In any case, Jerome translated the entire Old Testament from the Jewish Hebrew text. Not surprisingly, Jerome’s translation differed in many places from the Old Latin version (translated from the LXX) to which the Church had become accustomed; as a result, it was not readily accepted.

For a more serious example, Jerome’s translation greatly bothered Saint Augustine. Augustine believed that, “seventy united witnesses spoke with more authority than one, even if that one was as learned as Jerome” (catching some of the flavor of their disagreement). In an AD 403 letter to Jerome, Augustine expressed a strong desire that Jerome should do his translation from the LXX instead of the Hebrew text, fearing a consequent split between the Greek and Latin churches. Jerome responded at length to Augustine, defending his work - which he went on to complete in AD 405.

Jerome’s work was not accepted immediately, but came to be accepted over time. By the eighth century, and with some compromises to the Old Latin, it had become the Latin Vulgate (“editio vulgata” or “common version”) - the standard Bible of the Roman Catholic Church. Following its acceptance, the Church essentially ignored the Greek and Hebrew languages for hundreds of years.

The Hebrew text did not have the Apocrypha,
alto the Jews debated it as much as the church did
 
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