Jesus as Son

[billcu1]

Jesus always called himself son of man. The Church has decided to call him son of ‘God’. Is that giving him the position of the 2nd personage of God? Man has one personage wouldn’t that be the same with Jesus?

 

[NHInsider]

Jesus did use the term “son of man” to refer to himself - it is an affirmation of His humanity but also an apocalyptic title, see Ezekiel. But He also made statements like “I and the Father are one” that his listeners recognized as claims of divinity, clear enough that some accused him of blasphemy (see also Matthew 27, where this is one of the derisive comments made about Jesus: "He said “I am the Son of God.”)

John the Apostle uses the title Son of God repeatedly, as does Mark in the introduction to his gospel and Paul in several of his epistles. It took several centuries before the Church attempted to “explain” or “codify” this belief, that Jesus was both True God and True Man, fully human, fully divine, but the belief itself is there from the beginning.

Three Persons in One God = Trinity
Two Natures in One Person = Incarnation

Sally

 

[billcu1]

Jesus did use the term “son of man” to refer to himself - it is an affirmation of His humanity but also an apocalyptic title, see Ezekiel. But He also made statements like “I and the Father are one” that his listeners recognized as claims of divinity, clear enough that some accused him of blasphemy (see also Matthew 27, where this is one of the derisive comments made about Jesus: "He said “I am the Son of God.”)

John the Apostle uses the title Son of God repeatedly, as does Mark in the introduction to his gospel and Paul in several of his epistles. It took several centuries before the Church attempted to “explain” or “codify” this belief, that Jesus was both True God and True Man, fully human, fully divine, but the belief itself is there from the beginning.

Three Persons in One God = Trinity
Two Natures in One Person = Incarnation

Sally

The way I would understand Jesus saying “I and my father are one” would be that eventually as described in the theologica germanica eventually a man get to the point that his essence is the only essence and so as stated by Paul. But to another inquiry; Jesus said that no man except the father knows the day or hour. Unless revealed to him by the father he would not know the “day nor hour”. So I take it that Jesus doesn’t or atleast didn’t know the “day nor hour”. Now I would say yes.

 

[thistle]

The way I would understand Jesus saying “I and my father are one” would be that eventually as described in the theologica germanica eventually a man get to the point that his essence is the only essence and so as stated by Paul. But to another inquiry; Jesus said that no man except the father knows the day or hour. Unless revealed to him by the father he would not know the “day nor hour”. So I take it that Jesus doesn’t or atleast didn’t know the “day nor hour”. Now I would say yes.

D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:

Ver. 36. No man knoweth … but the Father alone. The words in St. Mark (xiii. 32.) are still harder: neither the angels, nor the Son, but the Father. The Arians objected this place, to shew that Christ being ignorant of the day of judgment, could not be truly God. By the same words, no one knoweth, but the Father alone, (as they expound them) the Holy Ghost must be excluded from being the true God. In answer to this difficulty, when it is said, but the Father alone, it is certain that the eternal Son and the Holy Ghost could never be ignorant of the day of judgment: because, as they are one and the same God, so they must have one and the same nature, the same substance, wisdom, knowledge, and all absolute perfections. 2. It is also certain that Jesus Christ knew the day of judgment, and all things to come, by a knowledge which he could not but have, because of the union by which his human nature was united to the divine person and nature. See Colossians ii. 3. And so to attribute any ignorance to Christ, was the error of those heretics called Agnoitai. 3. But though Christ, as a man, knew the day of judgment, yet this knowledge was not due to him as he was man, or because he was man, but he only knew the day of judgment, because he was God as well as man. 4. It is the common answer of the fathers, that Christ here speaks to his disciples, only as he was the ambassador of his Father; and so he is only to know what he is to make known to men. He is said not to know, says St. Augustine[5], what he will not make others know, or what he will not reveal to them. (Witham) — By this Jesus Christ wished to suppress the curiosity of his disciples. In the same manner after his resurrection, he answered the same question: 'Tis not for you to know the times and the moments, which the Father has placed in his own power. This last clause is added, that the apostles might not be discouraged and think their divine Master esteemed them unworthy of knowing these things. Some Greek manuscripts add nor even the Son, as in Mark xiii. 32. The Son is ignorant of it, not according to his divinity, nor even according to his humanity hypostatically united to his divinity, but according to his humanity, considered as separate from his divinity. (Bible de Vence)

 

[Texas_Longhorns]

Jesus always called himself son of man. The Church has decided to call him son of ‘God’. Is that giving him the position of the 2nd personage of God? Man has one personage wouldn’t that be the same with Jesus?

Regarding the underlined part, if you are asking if Jesus is only one person, the answer is yes. The early councils of the Church provided much clarity regarding the person and nature of Jesus, due to the many heresies of the time which attacked Jesus’ nature and person in various ways.

These councils defined that Jesus is one Person (a Divine Person) with two natures (human and divine). The Person of Jesus - the Word of God - existed from all eternity, along with the Father and the Holy Ghost. In time ( 2000 years ago), the Word of God assumed a true human nature (body and soul), which was immediately united to the Person of the Word. Thus, the human nature of Jesus was always united to the Person of the Word, and therefore always possessed a Divine Personality.

Now, since actions are performed by a person, not a nature, all of the actions of Jesus were the actions of God, since His Person of Jesus was God. Since all of the actions of Jesus were performed by a Divine Person, each and every act possessed an infinite worth.

 

[fisherman_carl]

Jesus always called himself son of man. The Church has decided to call him son of ‘God’. Is that giving him the position of the 2nd personage of God? Man has one personage wouldn’t that be the same with Jesus?

Jesus referred to himself as son of man which was a title associated with the Messiah as prophesied in Daniel where Daniel saw a heavenly vision and said I see one like a son of man…
Jesus is also the Son of God, since he was conceived by the Holy Spirit in the Virgin Mary.