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Some scholars today teach Jesus wasn’t from Tribe of Judah. They believe Matthew fabricated the geneological facts, in order to make the case that Jesus was legitimately qualified to be their Messiah.
They point to the fact that the 1st century Jewish priesthood [and modern Jews] believed Jesus not to be Judean … rather, a Nazarean/Galilean, who chose his Apostles from that area as well. And, on this basis they rejected him as the promised Christ from tribe of Judah.
Could Jesus not of easily proven them wrong ? Why did he not do so, or did he ?
They point to the fact that the 1st century Jewish priesthood [and modern Jews] believed Jesus not to be Judean … rather, a Nazarean/Galilean, who chose his Apostles from that area as well. And, on this basis they rejected him as the promised Christ from tribe of Judah.
Could Jesus not of easily proven them wrong ? Why did he not do so, or did he ?