John 3:16 Question (NAB)

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As a Protestant I always would read this passage as the following (taken from various translations):

NIV - For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son,[a] that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

NASB - For God so (A)loved the world, that He (B)gave His (C)only begotten Son, that whoever (D)believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.

KJV - For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

ESV - For(A) God so loved(B) the world,a that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not(D) perish but have eternal life.

So, since starting to join the Catholic Church I have been reading some of the NAB that I got from RCIA. It adds the word “might” into the passage:

NAB - For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him might not perish but might have eternal life.

Then I checked the New Jerusalem:

NJB - “Yes, God loved the world so much, that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him, may not die but have eternal life.”

And the RSV:

RSV - “For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.”

So my question is; why does it seem that the NAB added the word “might”. All other translations seem to omit such word. In a sense it seems that the NAB is implying that even if you believe in him you might not be or get saved.

Now I know that you must grow and form your life to His, and that belief is just a first step in the right direction, but why does just this one translation have the word “might” in the picture?

Thanks in advance!!!

God Bless!!!
 
As a Protestant I always would read this passage as the following (taken from various translations):

NIV - For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son,[a] that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

NASB - For God so (A)loved the world, that He (B)gave His (C)only begotten Son, that whoever (D)believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.

KJV - For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

ESV - For(A) God so loved(B) the world,a that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not(D) perish but have eternal life.

So, since starting to join the Catholic Church I have been reading some of the NAB that I got from RCIA. It adds the word “might” into the passage:

NAB - For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him might not perish but might have eternal life.

Then I checked the New Jerusalem:

NJB - “Yes, God loved the world so much, that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him, may not die but have eternal life.”

And the RSV:

RSV - “For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.”

So my question is; why does it seem that the NAB added the word “might”. All other translations seem to omit such word. In a sense it seems that the NAB is implying that even if you believe in him you might not be or get saved.

Now I know that you must grow and form your life to His, and that belief is just a first step in the right direction, but why does just this one translation have the word “might” in the picture?

Thanks in advance!!!

God Bless!!!
Good question. I would like the answer to that myself. I know that there are some here that do not like the NAB.
I think that you can believe in God or that there is a God and not follow Him and you won’t have eternal life then. So believing in God is not enough for eternal salvation.
How about someone more versed jumping in here.
Thanks
 
That is why I mentioned that belief is just a first step. But why does this one translation seem to add the word in?
 
should not, shall not, may not, might not, they are all indefinite wordings.

Not a single one of them says, “will not”.
 
I would say that should implies you are more than likely going to do something.

Might is really a 50/50 type word isnt it?
 
They are both kind of wishy washy words.

I should go home and take a nap. . I might go home and take a nap.

Neither one suggests that I’m definately going to go take a nap.
 
You forgot one! 😉

Douay-Rheims - For God so loved the world, as to give his only begotten Son; that whosoever believeth in him, may not perish, but may have life everlasting.

Might is the past tense of may, so in reality there are three translations that are using might. None of them are adding anything, they are just different translations of the Greek.

From what I can tell, there are two words to be considered.

mE apolEtai - no should-be-perishing

echE - may-be-having

So it is not a matter of adding might, but just keeping the thought from the Greek. I do not think that any are incorrect except that those using “shall” seem to be pointing to a more definative word than the Greek allows for. While shall does not disagree with the Greek, it would definatly cause confusion with those reading in English. It seems like the most accurate translation would say:

…should not parish but may have eternal life.

I am not experienced enough in Greek to be definative in this, so if someone knows more Greek, please feel free to correct. I am using a Greek-English interlinear which can be found here.

God Bless.
 
NAB - For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him might not perish but might have eternal life.

So my question is; why does it seem that the NAB added the word “might”.
Hi

Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον
ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν,
ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν
μὴ ἀπόληται ἀλλὰ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.

the two underlined verbs above, ἀπόληται ἔχῃ are ‘(may) perish’, and ‘(may) have’ respectively.

Greek verbs have Tense, Voice, Mood, Person, and Number. In 3:16 the last two verbs are in the Subjunctive-Mood. You can tell by ἀπόληται has a lengthened connecting vowel and ἔχῃ the eta is iota-subscripted.

according to Machen the Subjunctive-Mood, (or google ‘Greek Subjunctive Mood’)
“The meaning of the subjunctive in Greek is generally to indicate potentiality, as opposed to the indicative, which generally assumes a real situation. It is used in a variety of circumstances such as future (uncertain) conditions, clauses indicating purpose or intent, or exhortations.”

Sometimes translators will use ‘might/may’ to indicate that the verb is subjunctive to show potentiality. This IMO is what the NAB translators did. Its not always done though (ie add may/might) in translations . In John 1:7 there is another subj.verb ‘might-believe’ thats read in most translations.
 
John7 gives a great explanation. Further insight can be gleaned from the use of the conjunction “ἵνα”, which is rendered “so that”. Thus, Jesus is not telling the audience how to obtain salvation; rather, He is explaining why God the Father sent Jesus.

Consider the following example: “I applied the tourniquet so that I might stop the bleeding and save the victim’s life”. That statement does not imply that applying a tourniquet always will stop bleeding, or that even stopped the bleeding in this particular case. Moreover, it does not imply that tourniquets will save the lives of trauma victims, or that it even saved the life of this particular victim. The statement does, however, answer the question of “hey, why did you apply that tourniquet?”
 
John7 gives a great explanation. Further insight can be gleaned from the use of the conjunction “ἵνα”, which is rendered “so that”. Thus, Jesus is not telling the audience how to obtain salvation; rather, He is explaining why God the Father sent Jesus.
Do you mean John 3:7? John 7 is a whole chapter. I believe Jesus had told him that entering the kingdom is to come and go like the wind does sent by god the father descending from heaven born again from above.

Its all in there…

That is what Jesus takes his own name to mean, god delivers you. He said disbelieve and you are condemned already.
 
Do you mean John 3:7? John 7 is a whole chapter. I believe Jesus had told him that entering the kingdom is to come and go like the wind does sent by god the father descending from heaven born again from above.

Its all in there…

That is what Jesus takes his own name to mean, god delivers you. He said disbelieve and you are condemned already.
i was referring to the member who posted just prior to my post.
 
In order to understand this verse you have to understand what the word “believe” means in the context that God implies.

You get this understanding by comparing scripture to scripture, so as to have a complete understanding of what the word “believe” means in all of its contexts.
Code:
Compare Scripture to Scripture.
Is 28:10
For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept, line upon line, line upon line, here a little, there a little.
Is 28:13
But the word of the Lord was to them, “Precept upon precept, precept upon precept, line upon line, line upon line, here a little there a little,” That they might go and fall backward, and be broken and snared and caught.
1 Cor 2:13
These things we also speak, not in words which man’s wisdom teaches, but which the Holy Spirit teaches, comparing spiritual things with spiritual.

The word “believe” is the same word as “faith” except one is a verb and one is a noun. Next we look in the bible to define what “faith and believeing” means to God.

Hebrews 11 (King James Version)
Now **faith **is the **substance **of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.

God tells us that faith and believing (which are the same word) have substance to them

Substance implies that energy is expelled, thus it is work.

So just taking John 3:16 as it stands, you would read it as if you believe, you are going to be saved.

Yet we just defined belief as a work, and we know that work will not get us saved.

So we dig deeper.

and we learn that belief as it is used in John 3:16 is refering to the belief one recieves by obeying the law of God. The law of God is the word of God, which is contained inside the bible.

By comparing scripture to scripture we learn that in order to have the belief in Christ which is talked about in John 3:16, we must pursue God in His word and obey His law. By obeying His law, we have the definition of Love. Love is obeying God. All of His laws will result in Love, obeying His law will lead towards faith and belief. Notice i didn’t say will result in faith, as if its a foregone conclusion, because then that would conflict with the doctrine of predestination (election) which is real and fits in nicely with everything else. This is the belief in question, which you recieve by trusting His word, which only happens IFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF CHRIST gives you a new resurrected soul. Not a done deal, but a possiblity. that is why we continue to approach God in reverance and broken begging for mercy. We want that gift and we know the only way to get the gift is if it is given to us, we can’t just take it, we can’t find an alternative gift. We seek our Lord and trust His word

In a sense you can say well all of that is work too, but it’s not, or rather, it’s not work we do for the benefit of saving ourselves. It is obeying God to seek God in His word, to be close to God, which is spiritual and is acceptable. Seeking is okay as the source is God, and by obeying that which you read, and learing the dorctine does that lead to faith in Christ, which more accurately is statetd, you recieve the faith OF Christ. because having faith in Christ is a work, it is our own faith, our own beliefe, Yet as a result of being saved, we will have the faith OF Christ which is different.

So just reading that passage and saying i believe in Christ, so I am saved is not what that verse says, you have to compare that with all the other verses teaching belief, and understand that the belief in question is a result of seeking God and trusting His word, the bible.

Because faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God, and the word of God is the bible.

And because no man can come to Christ, except the Father draw him, and God draws you by His word, by reading His word we are on the verge of true faith, and faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God. So that is all Gods work, working to save you, IF you seek the Lord in His word and trust what you read. Which again isn’t your trust, but God having trust in you so much that He opens your eyes and openes your ears and puts understanding in your heart.

But believing in Christ will not get you saved, because your belief is nothing compared to that of Christs, thats not to say an unsaved person can’t have faith or believe in Christ. We have testimony the world over of people who are evil yet still believe.

All I am saying, is DO NOT TRUST IN YOUR OWN BELIEF AS THE CATALYST FOR YOUR SALVATION.

you can believe and you can have faith, and so can any unsaved person, so that is not the litmus test or the catalyst to salvation, it is an indicator, its good that you believe, but it proves nothing. which is why you compare scripture to scripture. to learn what belief means, and we learn it is obeying the Law of God, which incidentally is the same definition of Love.

Ask anybody to define love, see what they say, but the only answer, the one and only answer, is that love, is obeying the law of God, obeying God is true love.
 
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