John 3:16

[briankarman]

The King James Bible, in Jn 3:16, has “…gave his only begotten Son”, instead of “…gave his only Son” in Catholic Bibles. What is the significance of this addition in the KJ? I have a Pentecostal friend that thinks this is important.

 

[RyanL]

it has to do with the “Eternal Sonship of Christ”. see this link:
catholic.com/library/eternal_sonship_of_christ.asp

when the eternal sonship is denied, a refutation of the trinity is not far behind. stay on your guard.

also, we do not recognize the KJV as inerrant in its translation of the original language. use a catholic bible (i recommend the rsv-ce). you may also pick up an interlinear greek NT, and check out how the KJV added a doxology to the end of the Lord’s Prayer (“for thine is the kingdom, power, and glory forever, Amen”).

if i’m way off base, let me know!

RyanL

 

[Fidelis]

Not all Catholic Bibles translate it this way. The Revised Standard Version- Catholic Edition (RSV-CE) has “begotten,” as does the Douay-Rheims. The Greek word used is monogenes (“only begotten”) so the meaning is clear. One can only speculate as to why the NAB and otrher translators rendered it as “only son.”

 

[briankarman]

Thank you, Fidelis and RyanL,

You’ve been helpful. God bless.