John 6...the elusive question finally asked!

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One of the biggest divisions between Protestants and Catholics is the Catholic Church’s teaching regarding the Eucharist. It is a topic worthy of much debate because both sides cannot be right and let’s face it, if Catholics are wrong we are guilty of idolatry, the worship and adoration of mere bread and wine; and if the Protestants are wrong they are guilty of denying their Lord and Savior as He comes to us is this most mysterious way!

I was thinking about the Eucharistic discourse laid out in the Gospel of John chapter 6 (vs. 35-59) which is correctly used by Catholics to support the Church’s teaching of the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist; that what we eat really is His body. Jesus tells the disciples over and over again***…"Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you…” or…” he who eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day”* or “…my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed”, so on and so forth. We know from the beginning of the discourse that Jesus is going to teach them something controversial; in vs. 41 John tells us that the disciples began to murmur and dispute saying things like, “This is a hard saying; who can listen to it?” and , **“How can this man give us his flesh to eat?” **It should come as no surprise that Jesus’ words are every bit as controversial today as they were then.

I realized that in my discussions with Protestant friends I was showing them what Jesus says about his flesh in John 6, but I had been asking them the wrong questions. I tried to show them how literal Jesus spoke but I would end up trying to explain that we are not cannibals. I would show them how illogical the passage becomes when you give it a symbolic meaning, but they always saw a different meaning than I did. The question that I always thought was sure baffle my friends was; If Jesus was speaking symbolically why did the disciples leave Him and why didn’t He call them back if it was only a misunderstanding? This is a good question and I have never heard a really good answer to it but it never proved to be as powerful an argument as I intended. But now I think I know the question that I should have been asking all along. It is just so obvious!.

We all agree that Jesus was calling them to a deeper faith in John 6, calling Himself the “Bread of Life”. We know that He went on to explain this by telling them (and us) that we are to eat His flesh and drink His blood. We all agree that those that heard this became extremely disturbed, so much so that they decided they were not going to follow Jesus any longer…only the apostles stayed.

What we don’t agree on is why they left, which is why I had always remembered to ask my friends to explain to me why they thought the disciples left. The response is always that they had misunderstood Jesus and thought that He meant that they were to partake in cannibalism. This answer is not good enough because Jesus would not allow them to walk away from their Savior due to a simple misunderstanding…He had always corrected them when they misunderstood His meaning. He simply could not let them leave in ignorance…all He had to do was explain that He was speaking symbolically. Anyways, why would Jesus create such a ruckus only to tell them His flesh is symbolic food and His blood is symbolic drink? What in the world does that symbolize anyway? Those are all good questions but still not the one that suddenly came to me the other day!

After the disciples become distraught over this teaching, Jesus says to them, “…’there are some of you that do not believe’ For Jesus knew from the first who those were that did not believe, and who it was that would betray him.” This verse (64) clearly shows that the disciples did not leave because they did not understand Him, they left because they did not believe Him!

So my new question to all my Protestant friends is this: What truth did Jesus reveal in John 6 that they did not believe?
 
**Food for thought,make sure you point out what John 6:66 says:nope: Let them reflect on that for a bit:eek: :nope: **
 
Lisa4Catholics said:
**Food for thought,make sure you point out what John 6:66 says:nope: Let them reflect on that for a bit:eek: :nope: **

INNNNNTERESTING! Just read it…coincidence?..I dunno (I highly doubt any coincidence though)

Eamon
 
Thanks for your post.It has been a great help to me.
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martino:
One of the biggest divisions between Protestants and Catholics is the Catholic Church’s teaching regarding the Eucharist. It is a topic worthy of much debate because both sides cannot be right and let’s face it, if Catholics are wrong we are guilty of idolatry, the worship and adoration of mere bread and wine; and if the Protestants are wrong they are guilty of denying their Lord and Savior as He comes to us is this most mysterious way!

I was thinking about the Eucharistic discourse laid out in the Gospel of John chapter 6 (vs. 35-59) which is correctly used by Catholics to support the Church’s teaching of the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist; that what we eat really is His body. Jesus tells the disciples over and over again***…"Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you…” or…” he who eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day”* or “…my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed”, so on and so forth. We know from the beginning of the discourse that Jesus is going to teach them something controversial; in vs. 41 John tells us that the disciples began to murmur and dispute saying things like, “This is a hard saying; who can listen to it?” and , **“How can this man give us his flesh to eat?” **It should come as no surprise that Jesus’ words are every bit as controversial today as they were then.

I realized that in my discussions with Protestant friends I was showing them what Jesus says about his flesh in John 6, but I had been asking them the wrong questions. I tried to show them how literal Jesus spoke but I would end up trying to explain that we are not cannibals. I would show them how illogical the passage becomes when you give it a symbolic meaning, but they always saw a different meaning than I did. The question that I always thought was sure baffle my friends was; If Jesus was speaking symbolically why did the disciples leave Him and why didn’t He call them back if it was only a misunderstanding? This is a good question and I have never heard a really good answer to it but it never proved to be as powerful an argument as I intended. But now I think I know the question that I should have been asking all along. It is just so obvious!.

We all agree that Jesus was calling them to a deeper faith in John 6, calling Himself the “Bread of Life”. We know that He went on to explain this by telling them (and us) that we are to eat His flesh and drink His blood. We all agree that those that heard this became extremely disturbed, so much so that they decided they were not going to follow Jesus any longer…only the apostles stayed.

What we don’t agree on is why they left, which is why I had always remembered to ask my friends to explain to me why they thought the disciples left. The response is always that they had misunderstood Jesus and thought that He meant that they were to partake in cannibalism. This answer is not good enough because Jesus would not allow them to walk away from their Savior due to a simple misunderstanding…He had always corrected them when they misunderstood His meaning. He simply could not let them leave in ignorance…all He had to do was explain that He was speaking symbolically. Anyways, why would Jesus create such a ruckus only to tell them His flesh is symbolic food and His blood is symbolic drink? What in the world does that symbolize anyway? Those are all good questions but still not the one that suddenly came to me the other day!

After the disciples become distraught over this teaching, Jesus says to them, “…’there are some of you that do not believe’ For Jesus knew from the first who those were that did not believe, and who it was that would betray him.” This verse (64) clearly shows that the disciples did not leave because they did not understand Him, they left because they did not believe Him!

So my new question to all my Protestant friends is this: What truth did Jesus reveal in John 6 that they did not believe?
 
You may also try this little exercise:
  1. Pretend you are Jesus (I said *pretend…*don’t get all power crazy yet!)
  2. Pretend you actually want to convey that the bread becomes your flesh.
  3. Explain what you would say to get this across!
You should find the answer fairly close to John 6…

Blessings,
RyanL
 
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martino:
After the disciples become distraught over this teaching, Jesus says to them, “…’there are some of you that do not believe’ For Jesus knew from the first who those were that did not believe, and who it was that would betray him.” This verse (64) clearly shows that the disciples did not leave because they did not understand Him, they left because they did not believe Him!

So my new question to all my Protestant friends is this: What truth did Jesus reveal in John 6 that they did not believe?
I heard an answer to this from a Baptist I “converse” with:

“They didn’t leave him because of his teaching of the body and blood, they left because they were Jews and Jesus was proclaiming himself to be God (v.45, 65, and others) and the Jews didn’t like that and left him.”

I hadn’t heard that one before, and I didn’t have a quick answer at the time (we had been going around and around for a bit - and it was time to get back to work). Any ideas for a solid reply?
 
I would ask why, if that was what offended them, did they stick around in John 5 when Jesus said the following:
24Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
25Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live.
26For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;
27And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man.
If John 6 was re-stating old ground that they didn’t have a problem with when He first said it, why would they have a problem now? John 5 records no such apostacy, *including *when Jesus publicly forgave a man’s sins (parallel text in Matt) - the Jews, who previously asserted that “Only God can forgive sins” simply marveled in awe at Jesus’ use of God’s exclusive power. By Jesus declaring the man’s sins forgiven, He was also declaring that He was God - and yet, no apostacy! What makes John 6 different?
Good luck,
RyanL
 
That answer does not even justify a response…anyone who seriously gave that as an answer is so completely brainwashed that I dont think any arugment would be good enough for them.

But I did read those two verses and in neither of them does He explicitly claim to be God. But like Ryan said, even if He had…what difference would that make? Remember these were disciples.
 
Thanks for the replies Ryan L & martino.

I will formulate a reply to my Baptist co-worker along those lines this week…a great conversation starter…“Hey Dave, remember when you told me…” Makes me look forward to Monday! Well, maybe not that much!!!

Peace be with you,

SG257

ps - thread bump!
 
Thanks for the replies Ryan L & martino.

I will formulate a reply to my Baptist co-worker along those lines this week…a great conversation starter…“Hey Dave, remember when you told me…” Makes me look forward to Monday! Well, maybe not that much!!!

Peace be with you,

SG257

ps - thread bump!
 
Keep them on point…Jesus is focused on one thing at the end of John 6; that we must eat His flesh and drink His blood. The disciples leave precisely because of this…“how can he give us his flesh to eat?” they grumbled. Many left and would not follow him anymore because they didnt believe! Dont forget to ask your friend; what didnt they believe? The answer is in the text that i quoted above, “how can he give us his flesh to eat” and “this is a hard saying, who can listen to it?” It is virtually impossilbe to misinterpret this…you would have to intentionally dishonor the Scriptures to come to any other conclusion.
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stargazer257:
Thanks for the replies Ryan L & martino.

I will formulate a reply to my Baptist co-worker along those lines this week…a great conversation starter…“Hey Dave, remember when you told me…” Makes me look forward to Monday! Well, maybe not that much!!!

Peace be with you,

SG257

ps - thread bump!
 
Ok, my answer to your question…

Not that I’m all sure of this (actually, I don’t think it’s a very great answer now), but it’s what I once was led to years ago in a campus ministry study of this portion of Scripture.

The disciples left because of what He said in** 6:65**…

And He said,“Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto Me, except it were given unto Him of my Father.”

Christ was preaching basic Calvinistic Christianity, and that offended the Pelagian/Armenian consciences of many there, and they left because they didn’t believe in God’s Sovereign Grace!!

Not that Catholics are Pelagian/Armenian and deny sovereign grace, but that’s not a very justifiable answer to your question.

One reason, Christ is repeating what He said back in 6:44. And back in that section, well, 6:41 says that the Jews murmured because Christ was teaching Irressistable Grace, NO>>> the Jews murmured because Christ said “I am the bread which came down frm heaven.”:o

So, there’s another alleged answer that perhaps you would like to be ready for at some point.
 
When God REALLY wants to make a point, He repeats Himself. For example, in the Book of Armaments, Chapter 4, it reads:
Then thou must count to three. Three shall be the number of the counting and the number of the counting shall be three. Four shalt thou not count, neither shalt thou count two, excepting that thou then proceedeth to three. Five is right out.
Okay, that’s really Monty Python (Holy Grail), but even this spoof shows that the concept of repetition is well understood.

How many times does Jesus restate His position in John Chapter 6? Six times? Seven, maybe? I challenge ANYONE to find ANY doctrine that is taught so repetitiously as this teaching that “My flesh is TRUE food, and my blood is TRUE drink.”
 
Reformed Rob: Potentially, you’re putting words into the mouth of the writer of this Gospel, it seems to me. At best, you’re attaching too much significance to one sentence in the Gospel, one that can conveniently reinforce a pre-held belief.
Now, v65 does present some food for thought, but on an entirely different subject. Clearly, the substantive message of this chapter is v35-39. To contend the message related to vague “Pelagian/Armenian consciences” is a huge jump.
I think martino sums it up pretty well.

Jim
 
Reformed Rob:
Ok, my answer to your question…

The disciples left because of what He said in** 6:65**…

And He said,“Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto Me, except it were given unto Him of my Father.”

Christ was preaching basic Calvinistic Christianity, and that offended the Pelagian/Armenian consciences of many there, and they left because they didn’t believe in God’s Sovereign Grace!!
Reformed Rob, my question wasn’t “why did they leave?”, Scripture tells us that they left because they “didnt believe”…my question was; What didnt they believe?
 
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stargazer257:
I heard an answer to this from a Baptist I “converse” with:

“They didn’t leave him because of his teaching of the body and blood, they left because they were Jews and Jesus was proclaiming himself to be God (v.45, 65, and others) and the Jews didn’t like that and left him.”

I hadn’t heard that one before, and I didn’t have a quick answer at the time (we had been going around and around for a bit - and it was time to get back to work). Any ideas for a solid reply?
This is a slight of hand. Protestants due this with Matt 16:18 as well. They change the subject of the of the sentence/paragraph. (1.) First, as previously mentioned, the passage says FOUR TIMES to eat His flesh & drink His blood. To say it relates to Jesus being the Son of Man is obtuse. (2.) Peter publicly acknowledged Jesus as Saviour in Matthew 16 and no such falling away occurred as you have in John 6.
 
This seems to be an old question, we know what was taught from the beginning is still what the catholic church teaches today.

Chap. LXVI. — Of the Eucharist.
And this food is called among us 74 [the Eucharist], of which no one is allowed to partake but the man who believes that the things which we teach are true, and who has been washed with the washing that is for the remission of sins, and unto regeneration, and who is so living as Christ has enjoined. For not as common bread and common drink do we receive these; but in like manner as Jesus Christ our Saviour, having been made flesh by the Word of God, had both flesh and blood for our salvation, so likewise have we been taught that the food which is blessed by the prayer of His word, and from which our blood and flesh by transmutation are nourished, is the flesh and blood of that Jesus who was made flesh.75 For the apostles, in the memoirs composed by them, which are called Gospels, have thus delivered unto us what was enjoined upon them; that Jesus took bread, and when He had given thanks, said, “This do ye in remembrance of Me, (Luk_22:19) this is My body;” and that, after the same manner, having taken the cup and given thanks, He said, “This is My blood;” and gave it to them alone. Which the wicked devils have imitated in the mysteries of Mithras, commanding the same thing to be done. For, that bread and a cup of water are placed with certain incantations in the mystic rites of one who is being initiated, you either know or can learn. (Justin Martyr (A. D. 110-165), First Apology)
 
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martino:
One of the biggest divisions between Protestants and Catholics is the Catholic Church’s teaching regarding the Eucharist. It is a topic worthy of much debate because both sides cannot be right and let’s face it, if Catholics are wrong we are guilty of idolatry, the worship and adoration of mere bread and wine; and if the Protestants are wrong they are guilty of denying their Lord and Savior as He comes to us is this most mysterious way!

Hi All
Hope not offend anyone, this is just my opinion.
Except ye eat the flesh … - He did not mean that this should be understood literally, for it was never done, and it is absurd to suppose that it was intended to be so understood. Nothing can possibly be more absurd than to suppose that when he instituted the Supper, and gave the bread and wine to his disciples, they literally ate his flesh and drank his blood. Who can believe this? There he stood, a living man - his body yet alive, his blood flowing in his veins; and how can it be believed that this body was eaten and this blood drunk? Yet this absurdity must be held by those who hold that the bread and wine at the communion are “changed into the body, blood, and divinity of our Lord.” So it is taught in the decrees of the Council of Trent; and to such absurdities are men driven when they depart from the simple meaning of the Scriptures and from common sense. It may be added that if the bread and wine used in the Lord’s Supper were not changed into his literal body and blood when it was first instituted, they have never been since.
The Lord Jesus would institute it just as he meant it should be observed, and there is nothing now in that ordinance which there was not when the Saviour first appointed it. His body was offered on the cross, and was raised up from the dead and received into heaven. Besides, there is no evidence that he had any reference in this passage to the Lord’s Supper. That was not yet instituted, and in that there was no literal eating of his flesh and drinking of his blood. The plain meaning of the passage is, that by his bloody death - his body and his blood offered in sacrifice for sin - he would procure pardon and life for man; that they who partook of that, or had an interest in that, should obtain eternal life. He uses the figure of eating and drinking because that was the subject of discourse; because the Jews prided themselves much on the fact that their fathers had eaten manna; and because, as he had said that he was the bread of life, it was natural and easy, especially in the language which he used, to carry out the figure, and say that bread must be eaten in order to be of any avail in supporting and saving men. To eat and to drink, among the Jews, was also expressive of sharing in or partaking of the privileges of friendship. The happiness of heaven and all spiritual blessings are often represented under this image, Mat_8:11; Mat_26:29; Luk_14:15, etc.
thanks.
 
jsussvsus - “The Counil of Trent” the idea that the lord’s supper is the real body and blood of our lord goes back to the very foundation of christianity, I will repeat what Justin Martyr wrote prior to A.D. 165:

in like manner as Jesus Christ our Saviour, having been made flesh by the Word of God, had both flesh and blood for our salvation, so likewise have we been taught that the food which is blessed by the prayer of His word, and from which our blood and flesh by transmutation are nourished, is the flesh and blood of that Jesus who was made flesh. (Justin Martyr, First Apology)

There is a reason that I mention this, the understanding of what Christ said, even what he actually said, was better understood by those closer to the time in which he lived. The catholic church has not changed the teaching that was recieved from the apostles but rather perserved it. Paul teaches it this way:

1Co 11:26 For as often as you shall eat this bread and drink the chalice, you shall shew the death of the Lord, until he come.
1Co 11:27 Therefore, whosoever shall eat this bread, or drink the chalice of the Lord unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and of the blood of the Lord. (Douay-Rheims Bible)

How can one be guilty of the body and blood if it is merely symbolic? Many Protestants quit following Paul’s letter just before this point because to take these two verses into account requires a consideration of why Paul would say that we are guilty of blood over what some say is a mere symbol?
 
Martino

Thank you very much for your post. It certainly has helped me. I belong to two other inter faith forums and questions on John 6 are always being brought up. This will help me tremendously in trying to get the Catholic point across.

Thanks again.
 
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