John chapter 6 is confusing

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Yes yea but…why are we to choose that when Jesus was talking about death it is only figuratively and that eating His flesh is very much meant literally???l.
John 3:6 What is born of the flesh is flesh, and what is born of the Spirit is spirit.

Death is literal when either physical and spiritual. Death means the end of life, and life can be physical or spiritual.
  • Physical death is departure of the soul.
  • Spiritual death is the second death (Rev 20:6), separated from the principle of supernatural life, God.
 
This is why I find the Bible a bit problematic. I am supposed to understand the language used way back then. I am dont even know if I would ubdeestand how people spoke 200 yeara ago. We need commentaries whereas the Jews did not really need it. They already knew their own way of speaking. Jesus expects a person living ca 2000 years later to understand his way of speaking. It is a bit weird reading the NT without a commentary.
Why not juat have Jesus speaking to us in our way of speaking? Wouldnt that better.
What are we to think of this?
Well, that’s one very good argument for why He left us the Church, with its lineage of teachings stretching back to the beginning. There is simply no way that a person can pick up the bible centuries after the fact and have full, clear understanding of what it means to say. Heck, it was never intended to serve as a catechism to begin with. But the Church has continuously taught what she received and proclaimed before a word of the New Testament was written.
 
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I m aware that we are suppposed to take John 48-51 literally.
48 I am the bread of life. 49 Your ancestors ate the manna in the wilderness, yet they died. 50 But here is the bread that comes down from heaven, which anyone may eat and not die. 51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. Whoever eats this bread will live forever. This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.”

The problem is that Catholics who practice the faith in fact do die. Jesus said that those who ate the Man a died but people who went to Communion also died.
If Jesus really did mean that faithful Catholic wouldnt die why do the die???
Or do we get to choose which part of His message we want to understand litererally? Death is not to be understood literally but flesh?
Do I miss something about the Hebrew way of using both literally and figuratively in the same sentence or sentences?
Eternal life or an afterlife was not a certain and agreed upon concept among the Jews. Jesus explained that eternal life was real, and later proved it by His resurrection.
 
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Crist is speaking literally in this case. The Holy Eucharist that we received at Mass on Sunday is Christ’s body blood soul and Divinity so yes he is speaking literally. His body and blood soul and Divinity which we receive at Mass on Sunday is the sanctifying grace we need for our lives for eternity it strengthens us in this life and in the Life to come.
 
John 6 (along with Matt 16, backed by Isaiah 22:21-22) is what converted me from a Baptist clergy to a Catholic. The Bible and the Bible alone brought me to the Catholic Church.
 
I m aware that we are suppposed to take John 48-51 literally.
48 I am the bread of life. 49 Your ancestors ate the manna in the wilderness, yet they died. 50 But here is the bread that comes down from heaven, which anyone may eat and not die. 51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. Whoever eats this bread will live forever. This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.”

The problem is that Catholics who practice the faith in fact do die. Jesus said that those who ate the Man a died but people who went to Communion also died.
If Jesus really did mean that faithful Catholic wouldnt die why do the die???
Or do we get to choose which part of His message we want to understand litererally? Death is not to be understood literally but flesh?
Do I miss something about the Hebrew way of using both literally and figuratively in the same sentence or sentences?
I think you did not read far enough; Jesus knew people would die; he did say to Martha, “I am the resurrection and the life,” when we with our understanding see only Lazarus is dead - (is Jesus only speaking figuratively or spiritually or metaphorically about Lazarus?).
So, if you read the next couple verses in John 6 you will see that Jesus knows we die:
At this, the Jews began to argue among themselves, “How can this man give us His flesh to eat?”
So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I tell you, unless you eat the flesh and drink the blood of the Son of Man, you have no life in you.
Whoever eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day.
For My flesh is real food, and My blood is real drink"
I will die, but I intend to tell you right before I die that I am not about to die. And I will tell you that just like the Angel of the Lord avoided killing the firstborn in Egypt because he saw literal lamb’s blood on the doorposts and saw literal lamb’s flesh in the stomachs of the Israelites, in like manner the Father will take note of the literal body and blood of Christ in me (and in you) in his eternal resurrection of his Son.

Since I am one of the least of his brethren, Jesus will ask me about everyone I have known, whether they gave me a drink, or food, or clothed me in need, or visited me when sick or imprisoned for Jesus sake. I will give answer about everyone I know, and then they will be surprised to be let into the kingdom also, even though they were not Catholic or did not consume the Sacrament.

John Martin
 
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You didnt understand me.
Jesus spoke to the people using the way of speaking found in that culture.
Jesus speaks to us in the same way.
I will have to study the culture in which Jesus lived. We have a problem here.
Why would someone speak to me using a way of speaking that is found in another culture than my own. Seems kinda crazy.
Is Jesus crazy? No!
Then I am confused or something…
I know that even if I meet another person today he or she could be speaking to me in a way that I dont really use myself. Are you saying that understanding the way Jesus spoke is not in any way more difficult to understand than trying to understand a person of today’s culture.
The Bible is full of difficult language. Those who wrote the Bible thought they used a simple language, I guess, but they were not always correct. It is hard when you have to study another culture.
You said it is the Word of God. Are you really saying that the way of speaking used in the Hebrew culture is the one God wants us to use? Is this then language of God?

And in order to understand a culture you must live in it. I have never lived in another culture than found in this society. I am not even familiar with why David used his particular musical instrument (lyre?). I only know of the organ as the instrument for accompanying hymns and psalms.
I have never seen a person using lyre when changing psalm 50 (51). So I don’t understand much about his culture.
I dont wven understand much of the Melkite culture. I only feel comfortable at a Mass in the Roman rite.
Even Mass includes culture stuff that us difficult to understand.
What to make of this?
 
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There are two things that come to mind. The first is that we need to be interpreting the scriptures according to the magisterium. If our private interpretation represents a contradiction to what the Church teaches then there is something wrong with our interpretation.
The second thing is that we should meditate on the meaning behind the concept of the communion of saints.
 
Did Jesus even speak so that they Jews could understand? Didn’t He use mysterious parables so that only the disciples would understand?
What do we even mean by term Word of God? That a certain culture had a way of speaking that was favorised by God?
If Jesus used the Hebrew way of speaking does this mean that the Hebrew culture was blessed in a specific way by God or was He just born into it?
Jesus did not really use the Thomistic language so this way of speaking came after the word of God?
 
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Jesus gave us the Church. We read the Scripture through the lens of the Church.
 
The Greek of the New Testament had three words for life.

bios - our physical, biological life

psuche - our soul, our mind, our psychological life

zoe - the uncreated, eternal life. The life of God.

Here is the Greek of John 6:53-54
53 εἶπεν οὖν αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς· Ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, ἐὰν μὴ φάγητε τὴν σάρκα τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ πίητε αὐτοῦ τὸ αἷμα, οὐκ ἔχετε ζωὴν ἐν ἑαυτοῖς. 54 ὁ τρώγων μου τὴν σάρκα καὶ πίνων μου τὸ αἷμα ἔχει ζωὴν αἰώνιον, κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ.
I bolded the word for life: ζωὴν (zoen - this is “zoe” but with a case ending). In John 6, Jesus isn’t just speaking of bios. He’s not even speaking of psuche. He’s speaking of the sharing in the divine life, the true life, of God.

So this isn’t a case of Jesus being just figurative. We can see how he means it literally. The meaning is just made harder to see when the Greek is translated to English. Many translations seem to translate “zoe” as eternal life, but there’s a deeper meaning there. Again, it’s not bios, it’s sharing and participation in the divine life.
 
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As a continuation of my last post, I noticed you brought up John 6:48-51 specifically. “Zoe” is the word for life used here, too.
48 ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ἄρτος τῆς ζωῆς· 49 οἱ πατέρες ὑμῶν ἔφαγον ἐν τῇ ἐρήμῳ τὸ μάννα καὶ ἀπέθανον· 50 οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἄρτος ὁ ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ καταβαίνων ἵνα τις ἐξ αὐτοῦ φάγῃ καὶ μὴ ἀποθάνῃ·51 ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ἄρτος ὁ ζῶν ὁ ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ καταβάς· ἐάν τις φάγῃ ἐκ τούτου τοῦ ἄρτου ζήσει εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα, καὶ ὁ ἄρτος δὲ ὃν ἐγὼ δώσω ἡ σάρξ μού ἐστιν ὑπὲρ τῆς τοῦ κόσμου ζωῆς.
You can see the root ζωῆ (zoe) and its variations (so instead of “life” you have variations for “living” in “zon” and “will live” in “zesei”). But they are all based on zoe and participation in the eternal life of God. Not just eternal bios or psuche.
 
Jesus spoke that way because he was being followed by the people who wanted to make him their king so that they would have bread in abundance and there would be no need for them to work at all.
Jesus’ miracle of the multiplication of the loaves was a prefiguration of the Eucharist. This Eucharistic meaning was incomprehensible to the Jews at that time so they left him. This is the difference between Jesus and the politicians of any day. If the people start to leave them they would follow after them. The refrain of these politicians would be “Wait! Come back! We can make a deal! I didn’t mean it! Come back! Come back!”
 
Jesus left us a Church, not a book. He spoke to the Apostles in the way they could understand and teach others. Then he sent the Holy Spirit to protect the Church from error in it’s teaching.
We trust the Church to give us the correct interpretation of Jesus’s words. Part if that is giving us translations of the Bible in our venacular language.
 
I m aware that we are suppposed to take John 48-51 literally.
48 I am the bread of life. 49 Your ancestors ate the manna in the wilderness, yet they died. 50 But here is the bread that comes down from heaven, which anyone may eat and not die. 51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. Whoever eats this bread will live forever. This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.”

The problem is that Catholics who practice the faith in fact do die. Jesus said that those who ate the Man a died but people who went to Communion also died.
If Jesus really did mean that faithful Catholic wouldnt die why do the die???
Or do we get to choose which part of His message we want to understand litererally? Death is not to be understood literally but flesh?
Do I miss something about the Hebrew way of using both literally and figuratively in the same sentence or sentences?
Good point.

The only thing that I can figure is this.

Read Hebrews 11. Note this verse.

39 And these all, having obtained a good report through faith, received not the promise:

These are the Old Testament Saints. They died in God’s friendship. But they did not enter heaven. Which, if I’m not mistaken, is frequently described as “eternal life”.

Matthew 19:15 And he laid his hands on them, and departed thence.
16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? 17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.

Of course, they finally entered heaven, or eternal life, after Jesus died on the Cross.

Hebrews 9:15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

Ok, so that explains why they are said to have died.

But why is it said that we don’t? Good question. Let’s look at this conversation between Jesus and St. Martha of Magdala.

John 11:25 Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live: 26 And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this? 27 She saith unto him, Yea, Lord: I believe that thou art the Christ, the Son of God, which should come into the world.

So, even if we die, if we believe in Jesus, we shall live. See:

Heb 12:22 But ye are come unto mount Sion, and unto the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem, and to an innumerable company of angels, 23 To the general assembly and church of the firstborn, which are written in heaven, and to God the Judge of all, and to the spirits of just men made perfect, 24 And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel.

So, as long as we remain in a state of grace, after Baptism, we begin to participate in eternal life.

That’s my two cents. Good question.
 
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