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mcallistere
Guest
Question: Why was John not susceptible to Herod’s decree to kill all infants under 2 since Jesus’ family went to Egypt to escape it?
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williamric
Guest
Heres a two part answer… Firstly look at this verse…
16When Herod realized that he had been outwitted by the Magi, he was furious, and he gave orders to **kill all the boys in Bethlehem and its vicinity **who were two years old and under, in accordance with the time he had learned from the Magi. 17Then what was said through the prophet Jeremiah was fulfilled:
18"A voice is heard in Ramah,
weeping and great mourning,
Rachel weeping for her children
and refusing to be comforted,
because they are no more."[g]
So we see that Herod, gave orders to kill boys in Bethlehem, and its vicinity… Since Elizabeth lived a long way away John would have fallen outside of the area of killing…
Secondly, Elizabeth was six months pregnant when Mary visited… This means that John was about 5 months older then Jesus! Note the verse states that Herod choose 2 years and under in accordance with the time from the Magi! There is no time given as to the exact time that Herod started the killing… Indeed, It is highly likely that Herod would have picked an age very close to Jesus’s age, because he knew when the Magi had come… I think therefore, that it is likely that John was older then two years when the killing started!
Blessings
William
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