John The Baptist: Born without Original Sin?

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ohsnapitslennon

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If John the Baptist was born without original sin, would he have died eventually of natural causes? Mary was born without original sin and was assumed into heaven because of this. Or is it the conception with original sin that makes us die?

Thanks for your help :)…not sure if this is theologically correct

Lennon
 
I have never heard that St. John the Baptist was born without Original sin. I have heard that St. Joseph was conceived with Original Sin, but was born without it. I don’t know if that is official Church Teaching though. Interested to hear other answers…
 
I have heard also that it is a possibility that John the Baptist was born without original sin because he made a “baptism of desire” when he leapt in the womb of Elizabeth when Mary approached with the unborn Jesus. This is not doctrine however.

Even though he was born that way, he was not like Mary in that she was conceived that way from the beginning. She never had the stain of original sin and was never a product of the world at any minute. John was born that way, not conceived that way. There is a difference in primacy when thinking about it. Anyway, it has not been concluded that Mary did not die before being assumed into heaven. There are pros and cons on the subject and in the eastern church it is called the “dormition” of Mary.

Yes, John the Baptist would die even though born without original sin because ridding of original sin does not restore the preternatural gifts of adam and eve.
 
Yes, JB was BORN without Original Sin. However, like all (with the exception of Jesus and the Blessed Mother) people he was CONCEIVED in Original Sin. Adam and Eve were neither conceived nor born, but were CREATED without original sin.
 
I’m sorry but I would like to know when and how did the act to making babies became the original sin?. .or maybe i am getting this conversation wrong. .
 
Church_Militant said:
There is nothing in scripture or church teaching that tells us that John the Baptist was conceived without sin.

Fr, Charles Grondin explains it very well in the following answer from up in the Ask an Apologist forum.
How could John the Baptist be filled with the HS without baptism?
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To answer your question, I guess the same way David received the Holy Spirit (he feared losing) without baptism:

Psalm 51:11*
Cast me not away from your presence,
and take not your holy Spirit from me.
 
There is confusion here about original sin vs sanctifying grace.

John the Baptist was born in a state of sanctifying grace.

He was born in a state of sanctifying grace just as we are in a state of sanctifying grace immediately after our baptism. The original sin in which John the Baptist was conceived was wiped away while he was in his mother’s womb just as it is wiped away at our baptism and he was born in a state of grace.

But John the Baptist was subject to the effects of original sin just as we are. The effect of original sin is concupiscence, the downward tendency of man. Only Mary was not subject to concupiscence.

It is more accurate to say that John the Baptist was born in a state of grace then to say that he was born without original sin.

-Tim-
 
Bruincello said:
I’m sorry but I would like to know when and how did the act to making babies became the original sin?. .or maybe i am getting this conversation wrong. .
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I’ll say you are. Where has anyone so far stated that that is the nature of original sin? We haven’t because that’s not what the Church nor the Bible teaches.

You might take a careful look at the following links.
 
Church_Militant said:
I’ll say you are. Where has anyone so far stated that that is the nature of original sin? We haven’t because that’s not what the Church nor the Bible teaches.
Click to expand...
Perception to genesis 3
Parallel Romans 5:12-19.
The objectivity might exist only because the snake was the cleverest of all the creatures in the garden and the included man. . There for he knew exactly how to manipulate eve and why eve and not Adam first? only because eve was not the original as Adam was and he knew that Adam’s will, will trust eve only because she was made by GOD from himself for him. And that is why you find Adam shifting the blame to GOD,after being questioned about their disobedience." It was the Women you gave me that" . . . . . And he goes on, which ultimately leads us to our salvation, not because of Adam’s blames we are saved through CHRIST, but because GOD loves us and he want’s to make all what went wrong to become right again. . . .
And I truly believe as GOD is giving us life ever lasting now through Jesus . . That TREE was not going to be “forbidden for ever” to Adam and Eve but GOD HAD his own plan on how to guide them on how use the fruit to their advantage. .
Because you know some trees produces some deadly beautiful fruits. Not for eating. 😉
 
Bruincello said:
Perception to genesis 3
Parallel Romans 5:12-19.
The objectivity might exist only because the snake was the cleverest of all the creatures in the garden and the included man. . There for he knew exactly how to manipulate eve and why eve and not Adam first? only because eve was not the original as Adam was and he knew that Adam’s will, will trust eve only because she was made by GOD from himself for him. And that is why you find Adam shifting the blame to GOD,after being questioned about their disobedience." It was the Women you gave me that" . . . . . And he goes on, which ultimately leads us to our salvation, not because of Adam’s blames we are saved through CHRIST, but because GOD loves us and he want’s to make all what went wrong to become right again. . . .
And I truly believe as GOD is giving us life ever lasting now through Jesus . . That TREE was not going to be “forbidden for ever” to Adam and Eve but GOD HAD his own plan on how to guide them on how use the fruit to their advantage. .
Because you know some trees produces some deadly beautiful fruits. Not for eating. 😉
Click to expand...
Again, I ask you to cite where any of us have made any such assertion. It is not Catholic teaching, nor Biblical teaching that would make such a statement, therefore why would we? You cannot cite an authentic and authoritative source that would even infer that that is what we believe.

To get back on topic here. Nowhere do we find the church or the Bible teaching that John the Baptist was immaculately conceived, so it didn’t happen.
 
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