John the Baptist's sinfulness

[OchsFam]

He was Sanctified in his mothers womb, not Baptized. He was of the old Covenant.

That makes sense. Notice the “baptized” in quotes as I wasn’t sure exactly what word would go there. I understood it wasn’t baptism, but it had a very similar effect.

 

[Tom]

Yes, I know, which is why I said born(not conceived). However, if John was sanctified before birth, and never sinned, like Mary, than why would He have said in Matthew 3:14, "John tried to prevent Him, saying, ‘I need to be baptized by you, and yet you are coming to me?’ "? If John was sanctified as a fetus and onward, why would He have needed to be baptized? He would have already been in a state of sanctifying grace, right?

Being born without original sin does not mean he remained sinless. The Church does not comment on whether he sinned or not. Having the Holy Spirit cleanse him of original sin in the womb of his mother is “LIKE” baptism, but it is not in fact baptism, even though some say he was baptized in the womb. They say baptized in the womb for simplicity. Baptism also cleans you of personal sin. It is at least possible, that he considered his excesses in living, like eating honey, as sinful, and therefore thought he needed to repent and change his ways. Also Johns’ baptism, and Jewish baptism in general, was not what we consider what we consider a Sacramental baptism.
P.S. Br Rich answered as I was writing, I agree!