joseph smith's translations

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lynnettejane

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Why did JS translate the BoM, Pearl of Great Price and write the Doctrine and Covenants in King James English. What was wrong with 19th centuery English, are we to assume that God speaks in this archaic way?
 
Why did JS translate the BoM, Pearl of Great Price and write the Doctrine and Covenants in King James English. What was wrong with 19th centuery English, are we to assume that God speaks in this archaic way?
“King JamesEnglish” was the satndard for the Bibile and most familiar to people as “Holy Scripture”. As far as I know, God “speaks” ALL languages, and to speak to someone’s sprit does not even take a verbal language. We hear God in a way we understand no matter what culture we are from:D
Annie
 
Why did JS translate the BoM, Pearl of Great Price and write the Doctrine and Covenants in King James English. What was wrong with 19th centuery English, are we to assume that God speaks in this archaic way?
Many faith traditions have a “sacred language”…God doesn’t speak Latin exclusively…but for centuries Latin was the only language the Catholic church used in it’s worship.

The same goes with JS…he used the “sacred language” of his day…KJV English to share his revelations.
 
Smith wanted his farce to look legit, that is why he used KJV English.

As far as I know the Roman Catholic Church has never pronounced Latin as a sacred language. The changes in Vatican II would point to this not being the case.
 
Because he copied parts of the king james bible into the BoM and he was just keeping the language consistent.
 
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