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Guest
I am minoring in Linguistics, so questions like this interest me, but I just realized that Latin, strictly speaking, is no more “dead” then greek. The only difference is that linguists conveniently treat all the greek dialects as a single language, and seperate the romance languages.
It’s not as though western Europe woke up to suddenly find that the language used in the church was incomprehensible. Note also that the liturgy was changed from greek to latin because at the time Latin was the vernacular. I think what happened was that, given the solemn nature of the liturgy, a higher register of the language was naturally preferred, while lower registers of vulgar latin slowly drifted farther and farther away from the ecclesiastical register and from each other.
It’s not as though western Europe woke up to suddenly find that the language used in the church was incomprehensible. Note also that the liturgy was changed from greek to latin because at the time Latin was the vernacular. I think what happened was that, given the solemn nature of the liturgy, a higher register of the language was naturally preferred, while lower registers of vulgar latin slowly drifted farther and farther away from the ecclesiastical register and from each other.