T
TomS
Guest
At Mass tonight the lecter read from the lectionary, and the deacon read the Gospel, but the wording was slightly different than that of the missalette. I asked the priest about it and he said it was an older translation (1969 or 1973 version probably). Is the OK? I have seen this happen a few times before in other churches. I thought that the latest version had to be used for uniformity. This priest is fairly orthodox, so I don’t think he would deliberately choose the incorrect version. I know of one priest who reads the Gospel from the Douay-Rhiems transation of the Vulgate and he is extremely orthodox, in fact he says the EF in my diocese. What do you think?