M
Madaglan
Guest
I’m really confused why God in the Old Testament talks about certain animals being unclean or clean, whereas Jesus in the New Testament doesn’t seem to care so much about what animals are clean or unclean. God says in Leviticus 20.24-25: “You shall therefore make a distinction between the clean beast and the unclean, and between the unclean bird and the clean; you shall not make yourselves abominable by beast or by bird or by anything with which the ground teems, which I have set apart for your to hold unclean.” But then, Jesus, who is God, says differently in the New Testament. He focuses on a clean heart rather than a clean appetite.
Why would God say something in the OT and then say the opposite in the NT? If Christ changed the rules, then what should we make of the Old Testament rules–other than the commandments of course?
The laws God mandates in the Old Testament are no longer held by Jews or Christians today. For example, how many Christians today would agree that practicing homosexuals should be put to death, as ordered by Lev 20.13? Or, better yet, how many would agree that an adulterer should be put to death, as God commands in Lev 20.10?
Could someone perhaps explain to me the different kinds of law in the times before Jesus, and how they apply to Christians today. In doing so, could someone please tell me *why *these things are no longer–not simply because Christ and the apostles said so, but the real reason why the Word of God in these verses of Leviticus are now without much binding influence?
Levitical law, Mosaic law, etc. Need help understanding these!
Why would God say something in the OT and then say the opposite in the NT? If Christ changed the rules, then what should we make of the Old Testament rules–other than the commandments of course?
The laws God mandates in the Old Testament are no longer held by Jews or Christians today. For example, how many Christians today would agree that practicing homosexuals should be put to death, as ordered by Lev 20.13? Or, better yet, how many would agree that an adulterer should be put to death, as God commands in Lev 20.10?
Could someone perhaps explain to me the different kinds of law in the times before Jesus, and how they apply to Christians today. In doing so, could someone please tell me *why *these things are no longer–not simply because Christ and the apostles said so, but the real reason why the Word of God in these verses of Leviticus are now without much binding influence?
Levitical law, Mosaic law, etc. Need help understanding these!