Looking for some input on Exodus 21:1-7

[copland]

My wife asked me about Exodus 21, and she was curious why the male slaves were let go after they served 6 years while the girl slaves were not. I am about to do some extensive research on this, and if anyone here would be interested in giving me some good imput, I would truly be grateful. I am very interested in sound theology more than momentary speculations. Thank you!!

 

[Todd_Easton]

I don’t know if this will help but a couple commentaries touch upon this topic…

In the 1859 Haydock Catholic Commentary on Exodus 21:7 it says:Ver. 7. Go out, to work in the fields, according to Grotius; or rather, to enjoy her liberty. A father who sold his daughter, always expected that she should be the wife of the purchaser, or his son. If this did not take place, she was free after six years, or before, if her master died. Constantine sanctioned the power of the Romans to sell their children. The Phrygians and Thebans had the like custom. (Calmet)

In A Catholic Commentary on Holy Scripture, ed. by Bernard Orchard, pub. by Thomas Nelson & Sons, 1953, on Exodus 21:7-11, it says in part:7-11. The case of a maiden sold into slavery to become the slave-wife of her master is considered. If she displease her master who has determined her for himself, he may not sell her to foreigners but must either let her be bought back by her father or, if he give her in marriage to his son, treat her as a daughter, or ‘if he take another slave-wife, her food, her raiment, her marriage intercourse he shall not diminish’. Any infraction of these three rights sets her free.

 

[copland]

I found the answers I was looking for! It can be answered by the Greek Septuagint! I should have known!!

The Old Testament version my wife was using was based upon the Hebrew Masoretic Text, which is a bad OT version. There are many Pharissee revisions that have been made that have changed the original text. Here is the translated text that my wife used from the New Living Translation, 7"When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are." Here is a translation from the Greek Septuagint, “And if any one sell his daughter as a domestic, she shall not depart as the female slaves depart.” The Greek word for domestic is ‘oiketin’ and female slave is ‘doulai’. That makes much more sense than what the Masoretic Text does. The Masoretic text appears to be very much against women in this passage, and that is what my wife was troubled with. No wonder the NT authors quoted from the Septuagint 90% of the time when they quoted the OT!