Luke 1:38 Let it be to me

[choose_to_love]

Hi all, I have run into a question about the above passage, and am hoping for some clarification. I have seen several references to JP II teaching in a general audience that the original Greek used here in Luke 1:38 indicates more than passive acceptance, and that Mary actively desires to achieve God’s will for her.

In another online forum, someone has stated that that is not so, and the Greek verb used (genoito???) does not indicate what JP II is alleged to have taught.

Is it the whole espression in Greek that means the desire to also achieve the result?

I have looked, but have been unable to find the general audiences, from 1996 IIRC, in English, and I can find no direct link with the reasoning, only the conclusion (i.e., JP II and others have taught that Mary desired to fulfill God’s will, and this is indicated by the particular verb used in the Greek). There is a theologian named Edward Sri, I think, who also seems to write on this, but again, no source for the reasoning, only the conclusion. Anyone know anything about this, or have a link? Thanks.

 

[John7]

Hi,
Am not an expert at Greek but I’ll tell you what I know.

“genoito > moi”, various translation but basically saying the same thing

let it be done > to me
may it be done > to me
be it > unto me
let it happen > to me

genoito = Aorist Middle(dep) **Optative **- 3rd Person Singular

Optative mood has 5 uses (according to Macdonald’s Greek Enchiridion) one of which is to express volition, ‘the Optative of Wishing’ expresses a wish, hope, or desire.

Luke’s use of the optative here has Mary expressing her volition, wish, hope to give birth to Jesus (the ‘it’ of ‘let it be done’). She could have said ‘mh genoito’ which is a strong prohibition (translated ‘may it never be’, ‘by no means’, ‘God forbid’)

JPII is right to say ‘Mary desired to fulfill God’s will’ because the particular mood of the Greek verb.

That’s all I have for now, I’ll post again if I find something else/more.