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rome617
Guest
Can you explain these for me please? These are stumping my faith. They make me question the Church often. Particularly the immaculate conception and Perpetual Virginity. Thank you
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Irishmom2
Guest
I think your questions need to be a bit more specific.
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Mtatum1958
Guest
There are many articles on the Catholic Answers site if you care to read.
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Wesrock
Guest
I would relate both the perpetual virginity and the immaculate conception to her being, for a time, the tabernacle of God, and remember that God took the human nature of the Incarnation from her flesh.
The perpetual virginity is perhaps the oldest Marian dogma. We must remember that Mary was set apart for God. Given all the due deference the Jews had for the Ark and for the Holy of Holies, I can easily see Mary and a righteous man like Joseph honoring God’s even more real presence in Mary’s womb by respecting her virginity, not because sex between married people is unclean or defiling but because Mary was set apart by God.
Likewise, Mary’s Immaculate Conception was fitting given that she was to be the tabernacle of our Lord, and that it is furthermore inconceivable that a true and unreserved consent to the Incarnation by humanity be made by anyone who would have had reservation due to attachment to sin. Mary is also the archetype of the Church, and we should recall that “Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her, that he might sanctify her, having cleansed her by the washing of water with the word, that he might present the church to himself in splendor, without spot or wrinkle or any such thing, that she might be holy and without blemish.” Mary, as its archetype, is also without spot or wrinkle or any such thing.
These dogmas are ultimately Christological and ecclesiological.
The perpetual virginity is perhaps the oldest Marian dogma. We must remember that Mary was set apart for God. Given all the due deference the Jews had for the Ark and for the Holy of Holies, I can easily see Mary and a righteous man like Joseph honoring God’s even more real presence in Mary’s womb by respecting her virginity, not because sex between married people is unclean or defiling but because Mary was set apart by God.
Likewise, Mary’s Immaculate Conception was fitting given that she was to be the tabernacle of our Lord, and that it is furthermore inconceivable that a true and unreserved consent to the Incarnation by humanity be made by anyone who would have had reservation due to attachment to sin. Mary is also the archetype of the Church, and we should recall that “Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her, that he might sanctify her, having cleansed her by the washing of water with the word, that he might present the church to himself in splendor, without spot or wrinkle or any such thing, that she might be holy and without blemish.” Mary, as its archetype, is also without spot or wrinkle or any such thing.
These dogmas are ultimately Christological and ecclesiological.
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1ke
Guest
Can you explain why they “stump your faith”?These are stumping my faith.
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rome617
Guest
Because I have a hard time understanding why God would make Mary a virgin afterwards. Also, I have a hard time understanding how come she had to be conceived without original sin
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ahs
Guest
It might help to see the Dogmas on Mary in light of Jesus, since that’s Who they ultimately point toward. For example:
It was fitting that Mary be saved by supernatural grace at the very moment of her conception, being “pure” from that moment, because of the Person she would bare in her womb. As it was fitting for God to command that the Ark, containing the tablets (written word), Aaron’s staff (symbol of Priesthood), and manna (bread from Heaven) be made of pure materials and left untouched by man; so it is even more fitting for the vessel that carried Jesus (Mary) to be pure and untouched by man, as she contained within her THE Word of God, THE High Priest, and THE Bread of Heaven.
The Perpetual Virginity is something that has been believed in the faith from ancient times all the way up through the Reformation…and the Reformers defended the topic against people who tried to assert she had other children. Check this out (about 3/4 the way down):
It was fitting that Mary be saved by supernatural grace at the very moment of her conception, being “pure” from that moment, because of the Person she would bare in her womb. As it was fitting for God to command that the Ark, containing the tablets (written word), Aaron’s staff (symbol of Priesthood), and manna (bread from Heaven) be made of pure materials and left untouched by man; so it is even more fitting for the vessel that carried Jesus (Mary) to be pure and untouched by man, as she contained within her THE Word of God, THE High Priest, and THE Bread of Heaven.
The Perpetual Virginity is something that has been believed in the faith from ancient times all the way up through the Reformation…and the Reformers defended the topic against people who tried to assert she had other children. Check this out (about 3/4 the way down):
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Tis_Bearself
Patron
He didn’t make her one “afterwards”. She was a Virgin before, during and after. She never had sex with a man.Because I have a hard time understanding why God would make Mary a virgin afterwards.
Basically because God in the person of Jesus couldn’t be living inside the womb of a sinful person for 9 months. Mary was like the Ark of the Covenant, she carried God inside her. She had to be free of original sin and all other sin to do that.Also, I have a hard time understanding how come she had to be conceived without original sin
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