C
Callen
Guest
The Church teaches that every marital embrace should be open to procreation and should be unitive.
Does anyone know if this has always been the case?
Specifically was there ever a time - possibly before Vatican II that the Church did not teach or emphasize the unitive aspect of the marital embrace?
I have heard ancedotal references that the procreative aspect alone was taught but I am looking for Church documents that would prove or disprove this.
Does anyone know if this has always been the case?
Specifically was there ever a time - possibly before Vatican II that the Church did not teach or emphasize the unitive aspect of the marital embrace?
I have heard ancedotal references that the procreative aspect alone was taught but I am looking for Church documents that would prove or disprove this.