Thanks for the correction!P.S. The link provided by “Just Lurking” refers to the so-called Petrine Privilege. The requirements for that dissolution are different than those for the Pauline Privilege.
I have a question in this case: Suppose Betty (Lutheran) and Fred (Lutheran) divorce. Now Fred wants to marry Cathy, who is Catholic and free to marry. Can Fred use ligamen/prior bond to annul his marriage with Betty, and then use the Pauline or Petrine privilege to dissolve his marriage to Wilma upon his marriage to Cathy?The encyclopedia is speaking of a scenario where no one is Catholic. So, if our second wife Betty was another Lutheran, for example, the privilege would still apply.
I have to say that I’ve seen the paperwork asking for such dispensations from form in the case of many a mixed-marriage and a simple “For the spiritual welfare of the couple” has been the usual reason for the request. I’ve not seen any such requests refused. I guess it depends on the bishop.Originally Posted by pioneer1572
No, once the dispensation from form has been granted it falls to the Catholic party to inform the diocese and the parish that the marriage has been celebrated. No official ‘Church presence’ is required at the wedding.That is my understanding as well, but I believe there is an additional requirement that a priest (of the local diocese? or possibly just deputed by the local pastor) needs to be present at the wedding (not necessarily officiating in any way, could be just as a guest).
But Joe has given the best advice, talk to the priest.
–Jen
Hello,…
I have a question in this case: Suppose Betty (Lutheran) and Fred (Lutheran) divorce. Now Fred wants to marry Cathy, who is Catholic and free to marry. Can Fred use ligamen/prior bond to annul his marriage with Betty, and then use the Pauline or Petrine privilege to dissolve his marriage to Wilma upon his marriage to Cathy?
^^I believe you meant to say “there would be no need for a convalidation”Catholics are bound to get married according to canonical form. The Church can grant dispensation from canonical form. If dispensation from canonical form is granted the marriage is valid and there would be need for a convalidation.
I believe you are correct. My typing fingers and brain are out of synch.^^I believe you meant to say “there would be no need for a convalidation”
No problem! I just didn’t want someone to get confused!I believe you are correct. My typing fingers and brain are out of synch.