Marriage Denial to Impotent a moral evil?

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I’m just hearing about this, so still trying to get my head around it…

So some of you have said that you have to be able to perform the marital act to “become on flesh” and validate the marriage. But this doesn’t seem to be the main issue, because others have also said that Mary and Joseph’s marriage was valid even though they chose not to perform the marital act, because they both were CAPABLE of doing so. The latter is also consistent with what Jimmy said in the article above. Jimmy doesn’t even mention the “become one flesh” thing. He discusses how married couples commit “to a relationship in which the other party has a right to have sex with you…”. So seems to me it can’t be both. Either it’s the actual physical act that validates the marriage, or it’s simply the ability to carry out the physical act, even in the event that the couple chooses not to actually partake.
Validity and consummation are different things. Matrimony that is validly celebrated is presumed to be consummated after cohabitation, but may never be actually consummated. Consummation makes it permanent between the baptized. So it is possible to be validly married but not one flesh. There has to be the potential for consummation but there does not have to be potential for fecundity (fertility).

Validity is also presumed (favor of the law).
 
Validity and consummation are different things. Matrimony that is validly celebrated is presumed to be consummated after cohabitation, but may never be actually consummated. Consummation makes it permanent between the baptized. So it is possible to be validly married but not one flesh. There has to be the potential for consummation but there does not have to be potential for fecundity (fertility).

Validity is also presumed (favor of the law).
Hi Vico:

Thanks for that feedback. Okay, so if we are focusing only on circumstances pertaining to whether a sacramental marriage is allowed or disallowed, or valid or invalid, it seems to me that the actual physical act taking place is not the issue. As you pointed out, the church is not stating that for a sacramental/valid marriage to take place, there HAS to be a marital act. It’s simply that both parties must have the capacity to carry it out.

So essentially, God wants to make sure that one party does not enter into a marriage - marriage being the only permissible means of having sex - and not be able to partake in sexual relations with their partner. And THIS is what would be considered immoral…holding your partner hostage by not allowing them sexual pleasure when it is desired.

Am I getting closer?
 
Hi Vico:

Thanks for that feedback. Okay, so if we are focusing only on circumstances pertaining to whether a sacramental marriage is allowed or disallowed, or valid or invalid, it seems to me that the actual physical act taking place is not the issue. As you pointed out, the church is not stating that for a sacramental/valid marriage to take place, there HAS to be a marital act. It’s simply that both parties must have the capacity to carry it out.

So essentially, God wants to make sure that one party does not enter into a marriage - marriage being the only permissible means of having sex - and not be able to partake in sexual relations with their partner. And THIS is what would be considered immoral…holding your partner hostage by not allowing them sexual pleasure when it is desired.

Am I getting closer?
That is close. What is granted to the spouse is *not *fulfillment on demand. What is granted is “a conjugal act in itself apt for the generation of offspring” when charitable and that does not endanger the life extraordinarily. A wife can be justified in denying conjugal relations, and even a husband, even for life. If you want to know more about that I can post something from Pope Piux XII.
 
That is close. What is granted to the spouse is *not *fulfillment on demand. What is granted is “a conjugal act in itself apt for the generation of offspring” when charitable and that does not endanger the life extraordinarily. A wife can be justified in denying conjugal relations, and even a husband, even for life. If you want to know more about that I can post something from Pope Piux XII.
Wow, this is quite the rabbit hole here…

I definitely would love to read anything you want to share, cause I’m sure that once I get past this main hang up, I’ll want to know more about the details that follow lol

It was just really bothering me because I have studied apologetics (not formally) for the last ten years or so and I thought I had hit on all the issues that I needed clarification on. Last night I was listening to Trent Horn on Catholic Answers Live, the “Why do you reject Catholic Morality” or something like that. This lady called up and gave the example of the paraplegics not being allowed to be married in the Church, and this blindsided me. Just as I was starting to get a grip on what Trent was saying, the segment ran long and they had to go to break. So this has really been bugging me since.

The idea that sterility was not a deal breaker but impotence was really set me off, I won’t lie. I can see why others have viewed that as discrimination and heartless, which is why I’m trying to really understand the Church’s position. It does feel a little odd to me how - such as in Jimmy Akin’s article that was cited a few posts above - the idea of technological/pharmaceutical advances can lend themselves to better being able to fulfill the marital act, and this is what sort of triggered the realization that it wasn’t about procreation as much as it was about sex itself. It just sounds odd to think that man made advances can further one’s ability to have a better chance to enter into a valid sacramental marriage, but at the same time I can understand it from the standpoint of not wanting to trap the other person in a sexless marriage when they have no other sexual outlet.

So if I’m at least in the ballpark of understanding the teaching, I’d say go ahead and lay that Pope info on me, my friend 😃
 
… I’d say go ahead and lay that Pope info on me, my friend 😃
Gaudium et Spes 48 § 1
48. The intimate partnership of married life and love has been established by the Creator and qualified by His laws, and is rooted in the conjugal covenant of irrevocable personal consent. Hence by that human act whereby spouses mutually bestow and accept each other a relationship arises which by divine will and in the eyes of society too is a lasting one. For the good of the spouses and their off-springs as well as of society, the existence of the sacred bond no longer depends on human decisions alone. For, God Himself is the author of matrimony, endowed as it is with various benefits and purposes.(1) All of these have a very decisive bearing on the continuation of the human race, on the personal development and eternal destiny of the individual members of a family, and on the dignity, stability, peace and prosperity of the family itself and of human society as a whole. By their very nature, the institution of matrimony itself and conjugal love are ordained for the procreation and education of children, and find in them their ultimate crown. Thus a man and a woman, who by their compact of conjugal love “are no longer two, but one flesh” (Matt. 19:ff), render mutual help and service to each other through an intimate union of their persons and of their actions. Through this union they experience the meaning of their oneness and attain to it with growing perfection day by day. As a mutual gift of two persons, this intimate union and the good of the children impose total fidelity on the spouses and argue for an unbreakable oneness between them.(2)

vatican.va/archive/hist_councils/ii_vatican_council/documents/vat-ii_const_19651207_gaudium-et-spes_en.html

***Pope Pius XII, From Address to Midwives (1951): ***

The reason is that marriage obliges the partners to a state of life, which even as it confers certain rights so it also imposes the accomplishment of a positive work concerning the state itself. In such a case, the general principle may be applied that a positive action may be omitted if grave motives, independent of the good will of those who are obliged to perform it, show that its performance is inopportune, or prove that it may not be claimed with equal right by the petitioner—in this case, mankind.
The matrimonial contract, which confers on the married couple the right to satisfy the inclination of nature, constitutes them in a state of life, namely, the matrimonial state. Now, on married couples, who make use of the specific act of their state, nature and the Creator impose the function of providing for the preservation of mankind. This is the characteristic service which gives rise to the peculiar value of their state, the bonum prolis. The individual and society, the people and the State, the Church itself, depend for their existence, in the order established by God, on fruitful marriages. Therefore, to embrace the matrimonial state, to use continually the faculty proper to such a state and lawful only therein, and, at the same time, to avoid its primary duty without a grave reason, would be a sin against the very nature of married life.
Serious motives, such as those which not rarely arise from medical, eugenic, economic and social so-called “indications,” may exempt husband and wife from the obligatory, positive debt for a long period or even for the entire period of matrimonial life. From this it follows that the observance of the natural sterile periods may be lawful, from the moral viewpoint: and it is lawful in the conditions mentioned. If, however, according to a reasonable and equitable judgment, there are no such grave reasons either personal or deriving from exterior circumstances, the will to avoid the fecundity of their union, while continuing to satisfy to the full their sensuality, can only be the result of a false appreciation of life and of motives foreign to sound ethical principles.

~ Address to Midwives, Given by His Holiness Pope Pius XII, 29 October 1951

Pope Pius XII, Morality and Eugenics (1960):
Code:
             We have spoken on this subject in Our address of October 29, 1951,  not to expound on the biological or medical point of view, but to allay  the qualms of conscience of many Christians who used this method in  their conjugal life. Moreover, in his Encyclical of December 3 1, 193 0,  Pius XI had already formulated the position of principle: "*Neque  contra naturae ordinem agere ii dicendi sunt coniuges, qui lure suo  recte et naturali ratione utuntur, etsi ob naturales sive temporis sive  quorundam defectaum causas nova inde vita oriri non possit*."[12                 ](http://www.lifeissues.net/writers/doc/doc_32moralityeugenics.html#a12)             

                          We stated in the discourse delivered in 1951 that married couples  who make use of their conjugal rights have a positive obligation; in  virtue of the natural law governing their state, not to exclude  procreation. The Creator, in effect, wished human beings to propagate  themselves precisely by the natural exercise of the sexual function. But  to this positive law We applied the principle which holds for all the  others: that these positive laws are not obligatory to the extent that  their fulfillment involves great disadvantages which are neither  inseparable from the law itself nor inherent in its accomplishment, but  which come from another source and which the law-maker did not intend to  impose on men when he promulgated the law.
lifeissues.net/writers/doc/doc_32moralityeugenics.html
 
Thanks Vico, really appreciate it…going to read over this carefully so I can digest it a bit! 👍
 
Here is a short quote from moral theologian Fr. John Hardon on the matter:

“Inability to perform the sexual act may be absolute, when the impotency prevents intercourse with any person, or relative when impossible with some one person, or permanent if it cannot be corrected naturally or by lawful surgical means. Nowadays, with the progress of medical science, what used to be permanent impotency can become temporary, and new advances in this field are being reported annually. Only one kind of impotency invalidates marriage, if it is perpetual and if it precedes the wedding ceremony.”

Source: therealpresence.org/archives/Moral_Theology/Moral_Theology_006.htm
under the heading “Impediments to Marriage”
 
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