Marriage, Foreplay and pregnancy

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Logan

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My wife and I are expecting a baby in Oct./ Nov. My question is this since she is pregnant how does that effect foeplay? Since she is pregnant does it matter how my orgasm occurs? We don’t use contaception and since she is pregnant does it matter. I’m trying to describe this without getting too graphic, A private message would be fine as well. I’m just not sure how the church teachings are on this after the wife is pregnant.
 
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Logan:
My wife and I are expecting a baby in Oct./ Nov. My question is this since she is pregnant how does that effect foeplay? Since she is pregnant does it matter how my orgasm occurs? We don’t use contaception and since she is pregnant does it matter. I’m trying to describe this without getting too graphic, A private message would be fine as well. I’m just not sure how the church teachings are on this after the wife is pregnant.
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My recommendation is – change nothing! Let all the same rules apply.

Without trying to read too much into your question, you seem to be asking if something that would be inappropriate if your wife were not currently pregnant is OK now.

Even if the answer were “yes,” it would be selfish and risky to go that direction. Down the road, your wife will no longer be pregnant – and you may find yourself attached to something that is inappropriate.

Besides…You can do your wife no greater service at this time than to continue to demonstrate your desire for her, in the same ways and with the same intensity (if not more!) than when she was not pregnant. Many women (particularly first-time mothers) have difficulty reconciling their changing physical appearance, and not seeing themselves as “ugly.” Continuing to communicate unconditional love and desire for her at this time is a great gift.

The marital act is about giving. Don’t lose sight of that…
 
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Logan:
My wife and I are expecting a baby in Oct./ Nov. My question is this since she is pregnant how does that effect foeplay? Since she is pregnant does it matter how my orgasm occurs? We don’t use contaception and since she is pregnant does it matter. I’m trying to describe this without getting too graphic, A private message would be fine as well. I’m just not sure how the church teachings are on this after the wife is pregnant.
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As Humane Vitae says, “per se destinatus” (often mistranslated as open to life—really people used the Italian to get open to life but the Latin is clearly not that) as it is destined or as it is ordered…in other words the act has to remain the same…you cannot participate in things that are immoral because no chance of pregnancy occuring is present…you still have to maintain God’s design.

Under the Mercy,

Matthew
 
Bluntly spoken: The Church teaches that sex is reserved for marriage, and the marriage act has to include intercourse, with the intent for orgasm to occur (if it occurs) during intercourse. That’s the goal. If the intent is to achieve orgasm outside of marital intercourse, it is a grave disorder. . .a misuse of the gift of sexuality.
 
Humanae Vitae is pretty clear:
The Church, nevertheless, in urging men to the observance of the precepts of the natural law, which it interprets by its constant doctrine, teaches that each and every marital act must of necessity retain its intrinsic relationship to the procreation of human life.
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I take “each and every” to mean every single one, including if your wife is pregnant, past menopause, or even if she has had a hysterectomy.
 
So if “each and every marital act must of necessity retain its intrinsic relationship to the procreation of human life.” then you are basically saying that there should be no sexual act at all with anyone who is pregnant, on her period, menopausal, or who has had a hysterectomy? Because none of those have any relationship to procreation.

Hmmmmm.
 
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In_His_House:
So if “each and every marital act must of necessity retain its intrinsic relationship to the procreation of human life.” then you are basically saying that there should be no sexual act at all with anyone who is pregnant, on her period, menopausal, or who has had a hysterectomy? Because none of those have any relationship to procreation.
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Err…no.

Read the catechism. Read Humanae vitae.

The reference was to the specific type of activities involved.

(somehow I think you knew this…)
 
No, actually, I didn’t know “this”

I was just taking what was written at face value and asking, “what’s this all about?” particularly since there are so many views and subviews on the subject. So if it doesn’t mean what it says, then what does it mean?
 
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In_His_House:
So if “each and every marital act must of necessity retain its intrinsic relationship to the procreation of human life.” then you are basically saying that there should be no sexual act at all with anyone who is pregnant, on her period, menopausal, or who has had a hysterectomy? Because none of those have any relationship to procreation.

Hmmmmm.
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No. What this is saying is that natural law tells us about which parts belong where and what they should do there. And the “intrinsic relationship” requirement means that those parts always go where they belong, even when it is suspected or known that pregnancy will not result.
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dreater:
Read Humanae vitae.
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Excellent suggestion. Here is a link.

This extended quote may help with your immediate question:
  1. The sexual activity, in which husband and wife are intimately and chastely united with one another, through which human life is transmitted, is, as the recent Council recalled, "noble and worthy.’’ It does not, moreover, cease to be legitimate even when, for reasons independent of their will, it is foreseen to be infertile. For its natural adaptation to the expression and strengthening of the union of husband and wife is not thereby suppressed. The fact is, as experience shows, that new life is not the result of each and every act of sexual intercourse. God has wisely ordered laws of nature and the incidence of fertility in such a way that successive births are already naturally spaced through the inherent operation of these laws. The Church, nevertheless, in urging men to the observance of the precepts of the natural law, which it interprets by its constant doctrine, teaches that each and every marital act must of necessity retain its intrinsic relationship to the procreation of human life.
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well why would god make us be able to do so many things if it is all forbidden. god is all about love and not rules or punishments. he would not have made us so varied if we wer not suposed to injoy it. think about it
 
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