Marriage Question(s)

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Since the current canon law voided all previous codes of canon law this will only still be true today if the current code of canon law reaffirms this to be true. Do you know whether or not it does? It is an interesting question.
Here is a more recent (1977) update on the issue of what constitutes “true semen”, without which a man is considered canonically impotent.
 
Here is a more recent (1977) update on the issue of what constitutes “true semen”, without which a man is considered canonically impotent.
Since that article is from 1977 it was written before the new code of canon law so it cannot be taken as proof of current canon law, but thank you for posting it, I definitely look forward to reading it and finding out more about this discipline.
 
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